2014年2月27日星期四

Le dernier examen IBM P2090-011 gratuit Télécharger

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Code d'Examen: P2090-011
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Change Data Capture Technical Mastery Test v2 )
Questions et réponses: 51 Q&As

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NO.1 CDC guarantees data integrity by using two-phase commit operation between
____________.
A. source tables and source metadata
B. target tables and target metadata
C. source tables and target Tables
D. source metadata and target metadata
Answer: B

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NO.2 The default port number 10101 assigned to Access Server is ________________.
A. a fixed value pre-assigned by the software that can never be changed
B. a fixed value assigned by users at the time of installing the software
C. automatically assigned based on the license key
D. updatable by editing the Management Console properties
Answer: D

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NO.3 What happens when a new CDC subscription is created while database logging is
turned off at the
source?
A. The CDC instance cannot be connected
B. The datastore cannot be created or connected
C. The subscription that uses the source datastore cannot be created
D. When the subscription is started using the Management Console, the replication will not
succeed.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What additional software is needed to develop and compile your own Java User Exits
in CDC?
A. Microsoft Visual C++ compiler
B. JDK only
C. Both JRE and JDK
D. No additional software is required
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following will be a valid SOURCE for "InfoSphere Change Data Capture
(CDC) for Oracle
Triggers".?
A. Local Oracle databases running on any supported platform
B. Remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
C. Both local and remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
D. Heterogeneous databases running on any supported platform
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: P2050-004
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Order Mgmt Technical Mastery Test v1 )
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the approximate number of public APIs the IBM Sterling Platform has?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
Answer: B

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NO.2 How is the selection of a Warehouse or distribution centre or Store configured if not
specified during
order creation.?
A. Scheduling rules
B. Sourcing rules
C. Resource pool
D. Available to promise rules.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An Order can contain Order lines from:
A. Single channel , Single brand
B. Single channel , Multiple brand
C. Multiple channel , Multiple brand
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: M2040-642
Nom d'Examen: IBM (ICS Social Software Sales Mastery Test v2)
Questions et réponses: 47 Q&As

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NO.1 What is another characteristic of a Social Business other than being engaging and
nimble?
A. Technically strong
B. Has a strong presence in the Internet
C. Transparent
D. Informal
Answer: C

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NO.2 What design theme allows IBM Connections to be plugged in and accessed from a
variety of different
software and mobile products?
A. Social everywhere
B. Idea center
C. Social forums
D. Blogs
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the five IT eras that are listed as transformational technologies in IT?
A. Hardware, Database, Software, Web 2.0, XML
B. Mainframe, Departmental, PCs, Internet, Social
C. Vacuum tube, Transistor, RAM, vRAM, Quantum Effect
D. Fortran, COBOL, Basic, C++, Java
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is happening to an organization s business network?
A. Changing from the ground up
B. Creating new sales potentials
C. Delivering on new promised Web 2.0 ideas
D. Related computer systems are only involved
Answer: C

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NO.5 Three key attributes to focus on for designing for reputation and risk management are:
have a plan, be
proactive and fast, and __________________.
A. ensure that strategies are pushed down into the organization
B. limit access to social media site by employees and partners
C. do not respond to negative statements in social media sites
D. be transparent with two-way dialog
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C4040-120
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Associate: IBM i 7.1 Administration)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of System Managed Access Path Protection (SMAPP)?
A. To prevent excessive I/O queuing when updating access paths
B. To automatically save file access data for security auditing
C. To improve application run time by providing ¯ sho rt cu
to data
D. To reduce recovery time by journaling changes in access path size and location
Answer: B

IBM   C4040-120   C4040-120   C4040-120   C4040-120

NO.2 IBM i provides the capability to use digital certificates to sign objects. What objects,
other than
Programs (*PGM). Service programs (*SRVPGM) and Modules (*MODULE) may be signed?
A. Libraries(*LIB)
SQL Packages (*SQLPKG)
B. Query definitions (*QRYDFN)
Journals (*JRN)
C. Populated save files (*FILE SAVF)
Commands (*CMD)
D. Message queues (*MSGQ)
Populated data Queues (*DTAQ)
E. Physical files (*FILE PF-DTA)
User Profiles (*USRPRF)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Programmers are having issues with the RPG compiler, and it has been determined
that a fix must be
ordered. Which type of PTF is most appropriate?
A. Fix groups
B. Service packs
C. Individual fixes
D. Cumulative PTF packages
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator plans to use a single LPAR and Management Central to manage
PTFs for other
systems in the enterprise. What is the most important consideration when deciding the
baseline.?
A. All systems are the same OS level.
B. All systems are at the same PTFGRP level
C. All systems are at the same test fix level.
D. All systems are at the same Cumulative level
Answer: A

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NO.5 User HOK tries to login and received the message "User profile cannot sign on." What
is the most likely
cause for the error?
A. The user's profile has been deleted.
B. The user's profile has been disabled.
C. The OMAXSIGN system value is set to 1.
D. The OMAXSGNACN system value is set to 1
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C4040-332
Nom d'Examen: IBM (High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration -v2)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 What will allow an administrator to mirror shared volume groups between two sites that are
only linked by TCP/IP?
A. GLVM Disk
B. MetroMirror Disk
C. PowerHA 7 Network Share Disk
D. Cluster Aware AIX (CAA) Share Disk
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the two types of application monitors that can be created?
A. Process Monitors and Custom Monitors
B. Predefined Monitors and Custom Monitors
C. System Monitors and User Defined Monitors
D. Process Monitors and User Defined Monitors
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has completed installing PowerHA 7 filesets. Which task, or tasks, should be
completed next?
A. Configure cluster topology
B. Configure cluster resources
C. Reboot each PowerHA cluster node
D. Verify and synchronize the cluster
Answer: D

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NO.4 Based on the following output from a PowerHA 7 cluster node, what else can be done to
provide higher availability?
A. Enable fast failure detection.
B. Mirror rootvg across local disk.
C. Mirror caavg_private across shared disk.
D. Change non mirrored volume group disks to hot spare using the chpv command
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator is configuring a4-node cluster to host 3 instances of their production
application in an N+1 fallover design. Each instance will be in a separate resource group, and all 4
nodes will be participating nodes in each resource group.
Under normal circumstances each node only hosts one instance of the application. Whichever are
the first three nodes to join the cluster become production, and the fourth node will be the standby.
How must the resource group startup policy be configured to accomplish this?
A. Online On Home Node Only
B. Online On All Available Nodes
C. Online On First Available Node
D. Online Using Node Distribution Policy
Answer: D

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NO.6 The administrator has written a script "correct_problem.sh" that needs to be run if the
"release_vg_fs" event does not complete successfully.
What should be done to ensure the correct_problem.sh is called a maximum of 3 times if the event
failed?
A. Include a post event of correct_problem.sh and a retry counter of 3
B. Include a custom event of correct_problem.sh and a restart limit of 3
C. Include a retry command of correct_problem.sh and an event counter of 3
D. Include a recovery command of correct_problem.sh and a recovery counter of 3
Answer: D

IBM   certification C4040-332   C4040-332 examen

NO.7 A PowerHA 6 cluster has missed too many heartbeats during a large disk write operation, and
has triggered the deadman switch. Which tunable can help ensure that HA Cluster Manager
continues to run?
A. I/O Pacing and syncd frequency
B. I/O Pacing and asynchronous I/O
C. Syncd frequency and asynchronous I/O
D. Asynchronous I/O and disk queue_depth
Answer: A

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NO.8 Consider the following PowerHA DLPAR configuration for a cluster, and LPAR profile on the
HMC for a standby node in that cluster:
How should the standby node profile be reconfigured so that an application runs with the minimum
hardware resources?
A. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.1 and Maximum processing units = 0.6
B. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.2 and Maximum processing units = 0.5
C. Minimum processing units = 0.6 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 1.5
D. Minimum processing units = 0.5 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 0.9
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2150-575
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 Which partner vouches for the identity of a user in a Single Sign-On federation?
A. Relying party
B. Attribute party
C. Service provider
D. Identity provider
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer uses WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM) where IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) is configured to support Federal Information Processing
Standards (FIPS). When running the tfimcfg.jar tool this error is received:
FBTTAC1161 The SSL handshake failed. Retrying connection with certificate validation disabled
What must be done?
A. TFIM must be configured for SSL communication.
B. FIPS must be enabled on all TFIM WebSphere servers.
C. The TAM public certificates must be imported to the WebSphere trust store.
D. The tfimcfg.jar tool needs to run with the-sslfactory TLS argument.
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2150-575   C2150-575

NO.3 Which statement is true regarding event pages when creating a federation in IBM Tivoli Federated
Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. Event pages are tied to a protocol and not to a specific federation.
B. Event pages must be created (or copied from the defaults) and stored in the federation event directory.
C. Event pages can use the @FEDSTATUS@ macro to provide detailed Single Sign-On status
information to the user.
D. When creating event pages for a federation, it is important to append the federation name to the event
page filename so the TFIM runtime will use that instead of the default protocol event page.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is always required when creating an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) Single
Sign-On federation partner?
A. A signer certificate
B. A login protocol endpoint
C. A metadata file containing the partner definitions
D. A federation default or partner-specific mapping rule or function
Answer: D

IBM   C2150-575   certification C2150-575   certification C2150-575

NO.5 A company wants to establish a Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) relationship with a partner identity
provider to allow partner administrator access. This company provides services for credit card processing.
What is the most secure choice for the FSSO protocol?
A. OpenID using Associate Mode
B. SAML 2.0 using HTTP Redirect/POST bindings, signed response, and signed assertion
C. SAML 1.1 using a Browser/POST profile, signed response and assertion, and a narrow assertion
validity window of only a few seconds
D. SAML 2.0 using an HTTP-Artifact binding, signed response and assertion, an encrypted assertion, and
a narrow assertion validity window of only a few seconds
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2150-575   C2150-575   certification C2150-575   C2150-575

NO.6 Which roles are typically defined in an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Single Sign-On
federation configuration?
A. Relying Party or Service Provider
B. Asserting Party or Service Provider
C. Identity Provider or Asserting Party
D. Identity Provider or Service Provider
Answer: D

IBM   C2150-575   certification C2150-575

NO.7 What does this XSL code do?
<xsl:template match-'@* | node()">
<xsl:copy>
<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>
</xsl:copy>
</xsl:template>
A. It makes a copy of the template transforms on the input document.
B. It performs a series of transforms on a copy of the input document.
C. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all attributes, but not elements.
D. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all elements, but not attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is XSLT?
A. A concatenative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules to subexpressions, producing a new output
document.
B. A declarative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
C. An imperative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
D. A automata-based language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which
typically takes an XML source document and applies template rules to transition element states,
producing a new output document.
Answer: B

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NO.9 When configuring WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
using the WebSEAL No ACLD profile, which configuration requirement(s) are relevant?
A. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured).
B. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured).
C. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
D. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is a trust service chain in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. It is a defined set of WS-Trust security tokens, which together form a proof of trust and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
B. It is a defined set of WS-Security trust tokens, which together form a proof of claim and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
C. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances, collectively executed in a specific order,
with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the WS-Trust model.
D. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances which are always executed in the specific
order required by the authentication flow, with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the
WS-Trust model.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is always required when deploying the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 runtime and
management service?
A. WebSEAL
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true regarding this SAML 1.1 flow diagram.? (Choose three.)
A. The HTTP request in Step 3 is a GET.
B. The assertion is sent with an HTTP 200 response in Step 2.
C. An artifact value is sent with an HTTP 302 response in Step 2.
D. This is a Browser/POST profile, so in Step 3 the assertion is sent to the Assertion Consumer Service
endpoint through an HTTP POST of an HTML form.
E. The HTTP response in Step 5 must be a 302 redirect based upon the resource requested and the
user's authorized access which is determined by the response in Step 4.
F. This is a Browser/Artifact profile, so the artifact received in Step 2 must be sent to the Artifact
Resolution Service in Step 3, and the assertion must be retrieved through a SOAP backchannel in Step 4.
Answer: A,C,F

IBM examen   C2150-575   C2150-575   C2150-575

NO.13 Given IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 configured as an OpenID provider, what is a
correct statement regarding processing of attributes when using an IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
AssemblyLine as a mapping function?
A. Only requested attributes can be returned.
B. All attributes requested must be BASE64 encoded to ensure proper handling.
C. The AssemblyLine must assure that values for non-optional attributes are returned.
D. Requested attributes that have an empty value (not an empty string) must be removed and cannot be
returned.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A client has installed IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and is establishing a SAML
1.1 Single Sign-On (SSO) configuration with a service provider (SP). The client wants to provide
SP-initiated Federated SSO. How can this be accomplished?
A. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding identity
provider (IdP) login endpoint.
B. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters IDP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding IdP login
endpoint.
C. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, this can be simulated by using a link or
an HTTP 302 redirect to the IdP login endpoint with the query string parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and
TARGET to initiate the protocol.
D. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, and only an HTTP POST to the IdP can
be used to initiate the protocol, the SP must generate an HTTP 200 response containing a form with the
SP_PROVIDER_ID and target values which is self-posted to the IdP login endpoint.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statement is true about the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Business Gateway?
A. Users can use several gateway protocols.
B. Users can access external Web services.
C. Users can create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
D. Users cannot create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which HTTP status code is always issued by an identity provider using SAML 1.1 Browser/POST when
communicating with the Assertion Consumer Service?
A. 101
B. 200
C. 206
D. 302
Answer: B

IBM   C2150-575   certification C2150-575   C2150-575   C2150-575 examen

NO.17 Custom Java mapping functions must be deployed into which IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
V6.2.2 directory?
A. Plug-ins
B. Add-ins
C. Mappings
D. Extensions
Answer: A

IBM   C2150-575   C2150-575

NO.18 What does SAML stand for?
A. System Access Markup Language
B. Security Assertion Markup Language
C. Server Authenticated Markup Language
D. Secure Authentication Markup Language
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the default file name of the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator log?
A. tdi.log
B. ibmdi.log
C. ibmdisrv.log
D. ibmdirectoryintegrator.log
Answer: B

IBM examen   C2150-575   certification C2150-575

NO.20 When is IBM WebSphere Application Server required for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM)?
A. It is always required for TFIM.
B. When it is used as the point of contact.
C. When the Management Console GUI is used.
D. When Web Services Security Management is used
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: P2170-013
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Intelligent Operations Center Technical Mastery Test v1 )
Questions et réponses: 31 Q&As

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NO.1 How many integration points are currently defined for the Intelligent Operations Center?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 11
D. 20
Answer: C

IBM   certification P2170-013   P2170-013 examen   P2170-013

NO.2 Which Hardware Deployment Kit should you use for basic Intelligent Operations Center
Pilot program?
A. IBM System x3500 M3
B. IBM BladeCenter S
C. IBM BaldeCenter H
D. IBM zBX
Answer: A

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NO.3 The Time to Value Measurement is the time between customer agreement and
deployment test
complete, with the goal of reducing the overall calendar time for completion. Which of the
following issues
are NOT included in that deployment?
A. Root User not configured prior to installation.
B. Virtual Machine to Virtual Machine connectivity issues.
C. Feature complexity issues.
D. Database portability issues.
Answer: D

IBM examen   P2170-013   P2170-013   P2170-013 examen   P2170-013   certification P2170-013

NO.4 Standard Operating Procedures are created through a Design Tool, which is:
A. an Eclipse-based IDE for diagramming the procedure
B. a graphical authoring tool where you can connect different types of nodes and actions
C. an XML definition tool for work flow definitions
D. None of the above
Answer: B

IBM   P2170-013   P2170-013

NO.5 Which of the following is not a part of creating a KPI (Key Performance Indicator)?
A. Formatting data input for the KPI metrics to be provided
B. Business Monitor Configuration for Inbound Event and KPI Model
C. Defining KPI Context Structure Definition
D. Write a custom portlet for each KPI
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: P2140-021
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Rational Collaborative Lifecycle Management for IT Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the five imperatives best helps each team member understand what the rest
of the team is
doing and how it impacts the overall workload?
A. in-context collaboration
B. real-time planning
C. lifecycle traceability
D. continuous improvement
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a major benefit of real-time planning in IBM Rational CLM?
A. It captures best practices and reuses them across teams.
B. It allows everyone to participate in keeping the plan accurate.
C. It encourages incremental and breakthrough improvements.
D. It clearly separates planning from execution.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Progress frequently stalls because team members are unaware of which tasks they
must complete in
order for the group to move forward.
Which IBM Rational CLM feature helps prevent these delays the most.?
A. The Planned Time view shows the work load for each team member.
B. The Roadmap view makes dependencies visible to the whole team.
C. Ranked lists ensure that the team works on important items first.
D. In-place status updates appear in the plan automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which CLM capability does the Analyst role have full read/write access to?
A. software configuration management
B. test management
C. automation
D. requirements management
Answer: D

IBM   P2140-021   certification P2140-021

NO.5 IBM Rational Requirements Composer version 3.0.1 and later supports integration with
which two
products? (Choose two.)
A. Rational Software Architect Design Manager
B. Rational ClearQuest
C. Rational RequisitePro
D. Rational DOORS
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 A project lead wants to ensure that the whole team understands the overall scope of
the project.
Which capability of IBM Rational CLM should the sales specialist highlight?
A. It provides a single plan that spans requirements, development, and testing.
B. It fully integrates project planning with execution.
C. It emails copies of the plan to all team members.
D. It subjects any changes in the plan to the entire team approval.It subjects any changes in
the plan to
the entire team approval.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Practitioners are reluctant to participate in planning activities. Which IBM Rational CLM
capability
should the sales specialist suggest?
A. Team members can update status in the course of their daily work.
B. Teams are regularly reminded to provide status updates.
C. Team members who do not participate are absent in the Planned Time view.
D. Team leaders can require members to approve the plan.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which kind of artifact should a stakeholder create in order to visually model the
interaction of a
customer without focusing on the design?
A. user interface sketch
B. business process diagram
C. work flow diagram
D. use case diagram
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a major advantage of deploying IBM Rational CLM in a single server setup?
A. full Single Sign-On (SSO) support
B. a single LDAP server to control authentication
C. simplified linking of work items
D. easier to schedule maintenance windows
Answer: C

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NO.10 An organization has developed a set of best practices it plans to reuse in the future.
How should the
organization use IBM Rational CLM to achieve this?
A. create a project template
B. write a best practices wiki
C. generate a process report
D. develop a project script
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C2070-586
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Certified Solution Designer - Case Manager v5.1)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 When creating a new solution from a template, how long should the new solution
name be?
A. Any length
B. Less than 58 characters
C. Less than 999 characters
D. Greater than 8 characters
Answer: B

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NO.2 What utility is used to create the run time solution in a development environment?
A. Case Manager Builder
B. FileNet Enterprise Manager
C. FileNet Deployment Manager
D. Case Manager Administrator Client
Answer: A

IBM   C2070-586   C2070-586

NO.3 What is a reason to use iLog within the context of an ICM Solution?
A. To intelligently assign case workers to tasks.
B. To obtain additional Case Data from an external system.
C. To update a case property field after a step is completed.
D. To obtain a priority from a database call via a stored procedures.
Answer: A

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NO.4 There are two recommended methods used to copy a solution : Case Manager Builder
and what other
tool?
A. IBM Content Engine API
B. IBM FileNet Workplace XT
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

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NO.5 Business Analyst John Smith has a user ID and valid password configured with IBM
Case Manager
but has not been assigned to a project area. Which statement is true?
A. John Smith cannot login to Case Manager Builder.
B. John Smith can only work in the default project area.
C. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot create a solution.
D. John Smith can login to Case Manager Builder, but cannot deploy a solution.
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification C2070-586   certification C2070-586

NO.6 Within the scope of ICM databases created, which statement is true.?
A. The Process Engine database can only run on DB2.
B. The Business Space database can only run on DB2.
C. The Case Analyzer database can co-exist with the CE database.
D. The Process Engine database can co-exist with the CE database.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A case worker would like to send an instant announcement to other case workers in
the IBM Case
Manager environment. How can this be done?
A. By adding a comment to the case.
B. By using the external email system.
C. By using the IBM Sametime integrated feature.
D. By creating a case with the announcement as a property.
Answer: C

IBM   C2070-586 examen   certification C2070-586   certification C2070-586

NO.8 Which two components are optional add-on licenses with the IBM Case Manager core
product offering?
(Choose two.)
A. IBM Forms
B. IBM Case Analyzer
C. IBM FileNet eForms
D. Content Search Services
E. WebSphere Process Server
Answer: A,E

IBM examen   certification C2070-586   certification C2070-586   C2070-586

NO.9 A user in the customer_interactions project area has created two solutions, Sol1 and
Sol2. The user is
transferred to the credit_card_investigations project area. What happens to Sol1 and Sol2?
A. Sol1 and Sol2 are deleted.
B. Sol1 and Sol2 remain in customer_interactions project area.
C. Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to orphaned_solutions project area.
D. Sol1 and Sol2 are moved to credit_card_investigations project area.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer is looking for assistance in determining a backup strategy. Which
statement is true
regarding backup of the ICM solution?
A. A Hot Backup can be performed if the operating system is AIX.
B. A Hot Backup cannot be performed because Business Space prevents it.
C. A Hot Backup cannot be performed because of the difficulties of ensuring in-flight
transactions.
D. A Hot Backup can be performed because ICM provides additional features to permit this
process.
Answer: C

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NO.11 There are three levels of security when configuring a business space page. There are
View and Edit
access rights. What is the third security level that gives users "special permissions" for things
like
assigning access rights to groups of users.
A. Owner
B. Specialist
C. Super User
D. Administrator
Answer: A

certification IBM   C2070-586   C2070-586   certification C2070-586

NO.12 What tool is used to import a solution package?
A. IBM Case Manager Builder
B. IBM FileNet Process Designer
C. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

certification IBM   C2070-586   C2070-586   certification C2070-586   C2070-586

NO.13 Where can you find the following collection of data for each solution: solution status,
description,
Process Engine connection definition, and Case Manager Client URL?
A. In the IBM Case Manger Builder.
B. In the Business Space configuration setting.
C. In the IBM Case Manager Solution List page.
D. In the IBM Case Manager Administration Client.
Answer: C

IBM   C2070-586   certification C2070-586   certification C2070-586

NO.14 Typically, in a production environment, you do not give users permission to create and
manage spaces
and catalog entries in Business Space. What function is used to hide these features of the
client user
interface?
A. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.lockeddown to true.
B. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.manageSpaces to false.
C. Use FileNet Enterprise Manager to set LDAP security on the all users who should not
have access.
D. Use the IBM Case Manager Administration Client to configure the security settings for
Production
groups and users.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which tool is used to register External Data Services (EDS) with IBM Case Manager?
A. Workplace XT
B. Filenet Enterprise Manager
C. Filenet Deployment Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

IBM   certification C2070-586   C2070-586   C2070-586

NO.16 Which program is prohibited to be used with IBM Case Manager as per the licensing
terms?
A. Lotus Widget Factory (of IBM Mashup Center)
B. Case Manager crawler (of IBM Content Analytics)
C. Web chat client (of IBM Lotus Sametime Proxy Server)
D. Rule Execution Server (of IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules)
Answer: A

IBM   C2070-586 examen   C2070-586

NO.17 What is one reason to use IBM Forms over FileNet eForms within the context of an
ICM Solution?
A. IBM Forms is more tightly integrated with ICM.
B. The ability to use JavaScript to enhance the form.
C. The ability to use multiple Digital Signature methods.
D. The ability to use EDS (Extended Data Services) within ICM.
Answer: C

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NO.18 For IBM Case Manager, where should the database for the content engine target object
store and the
process engine on DB2 be located?
A. On separate databases on the same server
B. On separate databases on different servers
C. On the same database on a server with different userids
D. On the same database on a server with same userid and password
Answer: D

IBM examen   C2070-586 examen   C2070-586

NO.19 Which two items are always part of a case management solution? (Choose two.)
A. Analytics
B. Content objects
C. Database lookups
D. Process fragments
E. System integrations
Answer: B,D

IBM   C2070-586   C2070-586 examen   C2070-586 examen

NO.20 Which must be installed and configured with IBM Case Manager to enable IBM
Sametime?
A. Only IBM Sametime client and Lotus Domino server
B. Only IBM Sametime proxy server and Lotus Domino server
C. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime client, and IBM Sametime proxy server
D. Only Lotus Domino server, IBM Sametime community server, and IBM Sametime proxy
server
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2180-189
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Blueworks Live; IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V7.5.1, BPM Analysis)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the process discovery session, the team identifies that the process steps to review the
"hiring" request is the same as the process steps to review a "promotion/pay rise" request. What
should the BPM analyst use to map the activities needed for the review of the "hiring" request in
Blueworks Live?
A. a sub-process
B. a different color
C. a linked process
D. a separate milestone
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. What is the first thing the BPM analyst should do while constructing a discovery map? Identify
the:
A. Value-Add activities.
B. sub processes within the hiring process.
C. start and end points of the hiring process.
D. activity where the maximum problems lie.
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification C2180-189   certification C2180-189

NO.3 A BPM analyst has modeled the following process. However, after the "Extract Data" and
"Send data use case template to client", the client has stated that "Complete data scenarios" should
be done.
How should the BPM analyst adjust the process?
A. Join A and B
B. Insert join before A, and move B after A
C. Insert Join before B, and move A after B
D. Move B before A, and insert a join after A
Answer: B

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NO.4 A BPM analyst is designing a process in the Process Diagram View, and realizes the process
must account for a technical exception following an activity. What symbol in the BlueWorks Live
needs to be used for this technical exception?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

certification IBM   C2180-189   certification C2180-189   C2180-189   C2180-189

NO.5 A BPM analyst needs to make a change to the connections in the following process diagram.
The order of activities needs to be changed so that "Grind Beans" is followed by "Brew Coffee".
"Heat Milk" will come last after "Brew Coffee".
How should the BPM analyst make this change to the connection?
A. Click on the "Brew Coffee" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Grind Beans" and
"Heat Milk"
B. Click on the "Grind Beans" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Heat Milk" and
"Brew Coffee"
C. Click on the connection between "Heat Milk" and "Brew Coffee" and drag the connection arrow
to "Grind Beans"
D. Click on the connection between "Grind Beans" and "Heat Milk" and drag the connection arrow
to "Brew Coffee".
Answer: A

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NO.6 A BPM analyst is creating a process model for requesting a renovation permit. The BPM
analyst is using the following description of the first activity:
"One of our municipal office clerks receives a paper permit application from the local resident, an
applicant. The clerk first looks up the resident's name and address in our system, then enters the
information from the paper application into the system, and assigns a temporary permit number to
the application. When the application entry is complete, the clerk sends it to a manager to assign it
to an adjudicator."
Which name should the BPM analyst use for the first task that accurately describes the activity and
follows recommended naming conventions?
A. Application Entry
B. Create Application
C. Clerk Receive and Enter Application
D. Lookup name, create application, assign number, and send it to the manager
Answer: B

IBM   C2180-189   certification C2180-189   certification C2180-189

NO.7 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the discovery session, the business subject matter experts (SMEs) indicate to the BPM
analyst that the hiring request is reviewed by both the human resource admin and the human
resource manager. How should the BPM analyst document the participant role for this activity?
A. Assign the admin as the participant since the admin is paid less.
B. Assign the manager as the participant since the admin reports to the manager.
C. Break the "Review" task into separate tasks and define who does what.
D. Pick either the admin or the manager and assign the "Review" task to that role.
Answer: C

IBM   C2180-189   C2180-189   certification C2180-189   C2180-189

NO.8 During the Process Discovery phase, the BPM analyst needs to identify who must fully
participate in the Process Improvement and Discovery Workshops (PIDW). Of the many roles in a
BPM project, which roles must fully participate?
A. Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
B. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, BPM Developer
C. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, Project Manager
D. Project Manager, Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: P2180-031
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Worklight Mobile Foundation Technical Sales Mastery v1 )
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 Assuming it is not overridden manually, in which case will the isSuccessful property of the
procedure invocation result be true?
A.Worklight server is not accessible
B.Back end that adapter tries to connect to is not accessible
C.Internet is not available on a mobile device
D.Specified procedure does not exist in adapter
Answer: B

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NO.2 How can SQL statements can be invoked?
A.Only by using SQL statement query
B.Only by using SQL stored procedure
C.Only by having a separate file with SQL queries
D.Both by using SQL statement query and SQL stored procedures
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification P2180-031   P2180-031   certification P2180-031

NO.3 When should the Shell development approach be considered?
A.There are only two developers
B.The company wants to create a number of mobile applications sharing a common native code
base and authentication mechanism
C.The company wants to create a native iOS and Android application, but its resources are
limited
D.The company has distributed development teams situated on different continents that must
share the source code
Answer: B

IBM   P2180-031 examen   P2180-031   P2180-031   P2180-031

NO.4 Which authenticators are supported out of the box? (Choose three)
A.Header authentication
B.Persistent cookie authentication
C.Form-based authentication
D.Kerberos authentication
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 What is messages.js file used for?
A.This file contains the texts of application pop-up prompts
B.This file contains the texts of error messages that application may show
C.This is an internal framework file.It is used to store system messages for debugging purposes
D.This file contains strings that can be used for application elements
Answer: D

IBM   P2180-031 examen   P2180-031

NO.6 Which OS uses an HTML generated tab-bar?
A.iOS
B.Android
C.Blackberry
D.Windows Phone
Answer: B

IBM   P2180-031   P2180-031   P2180-031

NO.7 Which of the following is not a client side push API?
A.WL.Client.Push.isPushSupported()
B.WL.Client.Push.isSubscribed()
C.WL.Client.Push.unsubscribe()
D.WL.Client.Push.poll()
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of these adapter properties is mandatory?
A.adapter name
B.display name
C.description
D.ip address
Answer: A

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NO.9 Once a Shell developer completes developing her Shell components, what is the proper way to
distribute it to inner application developers?
A.Zipping the Worklight project and emailing it to inner application developers
B.Committing the Worklight project to a Source Control Management system and telling inner
application developers to use source code from it
C.The Shell developer should not distribute the Shell component to inner application developers.
They should send their inner applications to her in order to build them
D.Sending the .wlshell Shell bundle file to inner application developers
Answer: D

IBM   P2180-031   P2180-031 examen   P2180-031

NO.10 A Worklight adapter is used to __________.
A.adapt the application to various environments (iOS, Android etc)
B.connect to various back-end systems
C.make sure that client application works directly with a corporate back-end system
D.make sure that client application is not running on a JailBroken/Rooted device
Answer: B

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2014年2月26日星期三

Le plus récent matériel de formation Microsoft 70-270

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Code d'Examen: 70-270
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Installing, Configuring, and Administering Microsoft Windows XP Professional)
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 You are the desktop administrator for your company. You need to deploy Windows XP Professional to
50 new computers. You want to use a fully automated installation process.
Each new computer is configured with a 20-GB hard disk, a CD-ROM drive, and a floppy disk drive. The
computers do not contain network adapter cards.
You specify the company's standard installation settings and save them in an answer file.
You want to use the Sysprep utility to prepare the source computer for the deployment. Which two actions
should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Place the answer file in C:\Windows\System.
B. Place the answer file in C:\Windows\System32.
C. Place the answer file in C:\Sysprep.
D. Place Sysprep.exe and Setupcl.exe in C:\Windows\System.
E. Place Sysprep.exe and Setupcl.exe in C:\Windows\System32.
F. Place Sysprep.exe and Setupcl.exe in C:\Sysprep.
Answer: CF

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NO.2 You are the desktop administrator for one of your company's branch offices. The network in the
branch office consists of a single network segment, which contains a domain controller, a DHCP server,
10 Windows 2000 Server computers, and 50 Windows 2000 Professional computers. All servers and
client computers are members of the company's Active Directory domain.
You purchase 50 new client computers for the branch office. Each new client computer contains a built-in
PXE-compliant network adapter. You install and configure RIS on one of the Windows 2000 Server
computers that is on the network in the branch office. You create a Windows XP Professional RIS image
on the Windows 2000 Server computer.
You connect the new client computers to the network in the office, and you turn on each computer. Each
computer displays a message stating that it cannot contact a PXE boot server. You verify that the RIS
server is connected to the network.
You need to ensure that the new client computers can connect to the RIS server and can begin installing
Windows XP Professional. What should you do?
A. Ask a domain administrator to authorize the RIS server.
B. Grant the Everyone group Allow - Read NTFS permission on the RIS image.
C. Install RIS on the domain controller. Copy the RIS image to the domain controller.
D. Add a reservation for the RIS server to the DHCP server.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are a help desk technician for your company. Stefan and Irene are software developers for the
company. Stefan is developing a Web application on his Windows XP Professional computer. The
computer is named Stefan132. All client computers use Microsoft Internet Explorer 6. 0 or later as their
Web browser.
When Irene types http://Stefan132 in the Address bar of her Web browser, she cannot access the Web
application. However, Stefan can access the Web application by typing http://localhost or http://Stefan132
in the Address bar of his Web browser. He can also access resources on the company network.
When you run the Ping command on your computer, you cannot connect to Stefan ¯ s co m pu t e r. W hen you
attempt to access http://Stefan132 from your computer, Internet Explorer displays ° DNS o r Se r ve r E rr o r
You need to ensure that Irene can access the Web application on Stefan ¯ s co m pu t e r. F ir s t, you es t ab li sh a
Remote Assistance connection to Stefan ¯ s co m pu t e r
What should you do next on Stefan ¯ s co m pu t e r
A. Run the IPconfig /renew command.
B. Stop and then restart the World Wide Web Publishing service.
C. Ensure that the Everyone group has Allow - Full Control permission on the Inetpub folder.
D. In the properties of the Local Area Connection connection, allow a Windows Firewall exception for port
80.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are the network administrator for one of your company's branch offices. Ten employees work in the
branch office. All client computers in the branch office run Windows XP Professional. All client computers
have manually configured IP addresses in the 192. 168. 1. 0/24 range.
The branch office has a cable modem connection to the Internet. All employees in the branch office need
access to the main office by means of a virtual private network (VPN) connection over the Internet. The
VPN connection is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Employees in the branch office report that they cannot access resources that are located on the main
office network. You investigate and discover that you can establish a VPN connection locally on a client
computer named Pro1 and can access main office network resources. However, you cannot connect to
Pro1 from other computers on the branch office network.
You want all employees in the branch office to be able to access main office network resources by means
of the VPN connection on Pro1. What should you do?
A. Disable Windows Firewall on the main office VPN connection.
B. Add a port exception to Windows Firewall to allow incoming PPTP traffic on the main office VPN
connection.
C. Select the Allow other network users to control or disable the shared Internet connection check box.
D. Configure all client computers in the branch office to obtain IP addresses automatically.
Answer: D

Microsoft   70-270   certification 70-270   70-270   70-270

NO.5 You are a help desk technician for your company. All employees use Windows XP Professional
computers.
A salesperson named Philippe receives a removable disk drive cartridge from his supervisor. Philippe
now reports that he cannot edit files on the cartridge. When he tries to open any files or folders on the
cartridge, he receives an ° access den i e ¡± e r ror m essag
Philippe ¯ s supe r v i so r i s cu rr en tl y ou t o f t he
office.
You place the cartridge in the removable drive on your computer. You receive the same ° access den i e
error message when you try to access the files and folders.
You call Philippe ¯ s supe r v i so r. She ass you to grant permission to access the contents of the cartridge
only to Philippe. However, she also wants to prevent Philippe from changing permissions on the contents
of the cartridge.
Which two actions should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. As Administrator, take ownership of the files and folders.
B. As Administrator, grant your help desk user account Allow - Full Control permission on the files and
folders.
C. Grant Philippe Allow - Modify permission on the files and folders.
D. Grant Philippe Allow - Full Control permission on the files and folders.
E. Grant Philippe Allow - Take Ownership permission on the files and folders.
Answer: AC

Microsoft   70-270   70-270   70-270

NO.6 You are a desktop administrator for your company. You are responsible for deploying a new application.
The application is packaged in an .msi file.
You need to deploy the application to only three users in the company. The .msi file contains all of the
information necessary to correctly install the application.
You need to install the application so that users see information about the installation progress, but no
other user interface is displayed during the installation. What should you do?
A. Use the Msiexec.exe program to perform a quiet installation of the application.
B. Use the Msiexec.exe program to perform a passive installation of the application.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that assigns the application. Link the GPO to the site containing
the users who will use the application.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that advertises the application. Link the GPO to the domain.
Answer: B

Microsoft   certification 70-270   70-270

NO.7 You are a desktop administrator for your company. You need to deploy a new application. The
application is packaged in an .msi file.
The application will be used by only a small number of users. You plan to install the application by using
the Msiexec.exe program.
You need to ensure that the installation process does not display a user interface. What should you do?
A. Manually perform a passive installation of the application.
B. Manually perform a quiet installation of the application.
C. Use a logon script to run the Msiexec.exe program.
D. Use the Runas utility to run the Msiexec.exe program.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are the desktop administrator for your company. You need to upgrade a Windows 98 computer to
Windows XP Professional. Windows 98 is installed in a folder named C:\Win98. You need to ensure that
the computer's applications and settings are retained after the upgrade.
You insert the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM into the computer and restart the computer. The
text-based portion of Setup appears. The text on the screen states that Windows XP Professional will be
installed in a folder named C:\Windows, not in the C:\Win98 folder.
You need to ensure that Windows XP Professional upgrades the existing Windows 98 installation. What
should you do?
A. Rename the C:\Win98 folder to C:\Windows.
B. Modify the installation settings in the text-based portion of Setup so that Windows XP Professional is
installed in the C:\Win98 folder.
C. Restart the computer by using Windows 98. Then insert the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM into
the computer and run Setup from the CD-ROM.
D. Use the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM to create a set of Setup floppy disks. Restart the computer
by using the first floppy disk in the set to launch Setup.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are the desktop administrator for your company. You are responsible for automating the
deployment of Windows XP Professional to new computers in your company. You are preparing a
Windows XP Professional computer, which you will use to test disk imaging.
You install Windows XP Professional on the test computer and run the Sysprep utility. You use a
third-party software package to create a disk image. You apply the disk image to a new computer and
then restart the computer.
Instead of completing the Windows XP Professional installation, the computer starts the Windows
Welcome program, requiring you to enter additional setup information.
Because you will be deploying a large number of computers, you want to ensure that the disk image can
be applied without additional user interaction. What should you do?
A. Use a network-based RIS server to apply the disk image to new computers.
B. On the test computer, run the Sysprep -factory command. Re-create the disk image by using the
third-party software.
C. Use Setup Manager to create a Sysprep answer file. Copy the answer file to a floppy disk, and insert
the disk into new computers when the disk image is applied.
D. Create an Unattend.txt answer file. Copy the file to the C:\Winnt\System32 folder on the test computer.
Run the Sysprep utility and re-create the disk image by using the third-party software.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are the desktop administrator for your company's sales department. Susan is a user in the sales
department. Susan's computer currently runs Microsoft Windows NT Workstation 4. 0. Susan uses a
legacy application that is compatible with only Windows NT Workstation.
You want to install Windows XP Professional on Susan's computer. You plan to set up a dual-boot
configuration so that Susan can run either Windows XP Professional or Windows NT Workstation.
Susan's computer has two hard disks, named drive C and drive G. You install Windows XP Professional
on drive G. After Windows XP Professional is installed, Susan reports that Windows NT Workstation is no
longer available.
You need to ensure that both operating systems are available on Susan's computer. What should you do?
A. Insert the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM into the computer.
Run the Sfc.exe /scannow command.
B. Insert the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM into the computer.
Run the Winnt32. exe /cmdcons command.
C. Start the computer by using an MS-DOS bootable floppy disk.
Run the Attrib.exe -r -h -s c:\bootsect.dos command.
D. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM.
From the Recovery console, run the Bootcfg /rebuild command.
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are the administrator of a Windows XP Professional computer named Pro1. The computer is
connected to the Internet. Pro1 provides Internet access to eight other Windows XP Professional
computers that are connected to Pro1.
You enable Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) and Windows Firewall on Pro1.
You run an application named App1 on Pro1. App1 communicates with an online training company on
the Internet. To display an online seminar, the training company needs to contact the App1 application at
port 5800.
You want to ensure that the training company can connect to the App1 application. What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Firewall to enable the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Allow redirect
option. Then start the App1 application that opens port 5800.
B. Create a new service exception named App1. Use port 5800 as both the external and internal port
number.
C. Edit the %systemroot%\System32\Drivers\Etc\Services file on Pro1 to include a service definition
named App1 for port 5800.
D. Change the TCP/IP settings on Pro1 to enable TCP/IP filtering. Permit network traffic on port 5800.
Answer: B

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NO.12 You are the desktop administrator for your company. You successfully perform a clean installation of
Windows XP Professional on drive C of a computer that is used by an employee named Susan.
Susan is a software developer. She wants her computer to have a dual-boot configuration so that she can
use either Windows XP Professional or Windows 2000 Professional. She installs Windows 2000
Professional on drive G.
After installing Windows 2000 Professional, Susan restarts her computer and chooses to start Windows
XP Professional. When Windows XP Professional starts, Susan sees the following error message, which
is also shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
"Windows 2000 could not start because the following file is missing or corrupt:
\WINDOWS\SYSTEM32\CONFIG\SYSTEM"
However, Susan restarts her computer and is able to successfully start Windows 2000 Professional.
You want Susan's dual-boot configuration to function properly. You start Susan's computer and choose to
start Windows 2000 Professional.
What should you do next?
A. Copy the NTLDR file and the Ntdetect.com file from the i386 folder on the Windows XP Professional
CD-ROM to the root directory of drive C.
B. Copy the NTLDR file and the Ntdetect.com file from the i386 folder on the Windows XP Professional
CD-ROM to the root directory of drive G.
C. Restore the C:\Windows\System32\Config\System file from a recent backup.
D. Restore the G:\Windows\System32\Config\System file from a recent backup.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are the desktop administrator for your company's sales department. The company's network
contains a RIS server.
You need to install Windows XP Professional on a computer that has a SCSI disk subsystem. You start
the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and you begin the installation. However,
Setup reports that it cannot find any disks on which to install Windows XP Professional.
You start the computer by using a RIS bootable floppy disk, and you receive the same result. What should
you do?
A. Add an answer file to the root directory of the RIS bootable floppy disk.
Start the computer by using the RIS bootable floppy disk, and run Setup by using RIS.
B. Add the SCSI-controller driver to the root directory of the RIS bootable floppy disk.
Start the computer by using the RIS bootable floppy disk, and run Setup by using RIS.
C. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and run Setup.
After Setup starts, provide an answer file on a floppy disk.
D. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and run Setup.
After Setup starts, provide a SCSI-controller driver on a floppy disk.
E. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and run Setup.
After Setup starts, provide the appropriate HAL on a floppy disk.
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are the desktop administrator for your company's sales department. You need to perform a clean
installation of Windows XP Professional on a computer that currently runs Windows 98.
You start the installation. The text-based portion of Setup finishes successfully. Before the GUI-based
portion of Setup starts, the computer stops responding. You investigate and discover that there is a
problem with a device driver.
You want to know which device is causing the problem. What should you do?
A. Modify the Boot.ini file to include the /fastdetect switch.
B. Modify the Boot.ini file to include the /sos switch.
C. Restart Setup by using the /dudisable switch.
D. Restart Setup by using the /dushare switch.
E. Restart the computer. From the Recovery console, read the Dr. Watson log.
F. Restart the computer. From the Recovery console, read the Comsetup.log file.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are the desktop administrator for your company's sales department. Katrin is a user in the sales
department. You need to upgrade Katrin's Windows 2000 Professional computer to Windows XP
Professional.
Philippe is the network administrator. He previously downloaded updated Setup files and placed them on
a server named Server1, in a shared folder named Updates. Philippe has successfully installed
computers by using these updated Setup files.
You want to ensure that these updated Setup files are automatically installed on Katrin's computer during
the upgrade. Which command should you run to start Setup?
A. Winnt32. exe /dushare:\\server1\updates
B. Winnt32. exe /copydir:\\server1\updates
C. Winnt32. exe /duprepare:\\server1\updates
D. Winnt32. exe /copysource:\\server1\updates
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are a desktop administrator for your company. A company user reports that he is unable to use his
Bluetooth-enabled mobile phone with his Bluetooth-enabled Windows XP Professional computer. He is
trying to play audio from the phone through the speakers on his computer.
You verify that other Bluetooth devices work properly with the user ¯ s co m pu t e r. You t es t t he speake r s t o
make sure they are in working order. You also verify that the mobile phone can send output to a computer.
You then discover that the phone cannot detect the computer.
You need to ensure that the user can use the phone with his computer. What should you do?
A. Place the phone in Bluetooth discovery mode.
B. Place the user ¯ s co m pu t e r i n B l ue t oo t h d i scove r y m ode
C. Add the phone and the computer to the same Bluetooth Personal Area Network (PAN).
D. Install mobile phone synchronization software on the user ¯ s co m pu t e r
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are a help desk technician for your company, which is in the process of deploying Windows XP
Professional to all client computers.
You upgrade Pierre ¯ s W i ndo w s 98 po rt ab l e co m pu t e r t o W i ndo w s XP P r o f ess i ona l. A ft e r t he upg r ade ,
Pierre reports that some of his older software applications no longer work properly. Also, one of the
hardware devices on his computer is not currently supported by Windows XP Professional. Pierre
requests that you reinstall Windows 98 and all of his applications so that he can use his computer
normally.
You need to restore Pierre ¯ s co m pu t e r t o it s p r -upgraded state while retaining all of the applications,
documents, and personal data on the computer. You want to accomplish this task in the minimum amount
of time.
What should you do?
A. Copy Pierre ¯ s docu m en t s and personal data to a shared folder on the network.
B. Reinstall Windows 98 and Pierre ¯ s app li ca ti ons
C. Copy the documents and personal data to the My Documents folder on Pierre ¯ s co m pu t e r
D. On Pierre ¯ s co m pu t e r, r un Se t up . exe fr o m a W i ndo w s 98 i ns t a lation CD.
E. On Pierre ¯ s co m pu t e r, use t he Add o r R e m ove P r og r a m s W i za r d t o r e m ove t he W i ndo w s XP
Professional Installation item.
F. On Pierre ¯ s co m pu t e r, use a t h ir -party disk-imaging software utility to apply a disk image that contains
Windows 98 and Pierre ¯ s app li ca ti ons
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company's network consists of a single
Active Directory domain. All client computers run Windows XP Professional.
Bruno is a user in the graphics department. Bruno creates a new shared folder named GFXTemplates on
his computer. The GFXTemplates folder contains custom templates that are used by various applications.
The permissions on the GFXTemplates folder must meet the following requirements:
¡¤Users must be able to access the GFXTemplaes folder and all files it contains.
¡¤Users must be able to add newly created template files to the GFXTemplates folder
¡¤Users must not be able to delete any files in the GFXTemplates folder
Bruno configures permissions on the GFXTemplates folder as shown in the following table.
The users in the graphics department report that they cannot add files to the GFXTemplates folder. What
should you do to resolve this problem?
A. Modify the NTFS permissions on the GFXTemplates folder to grant the Everyone group Allow - Modify
permission.
B. Modify the NTFS permissions on the GFXTemplates folder to grant the Users group Allow - Read and
Allow - Write permissions.
C. Modify the shared folder permissions on the GFXTemplates folder to grant the Everyone group Allow -
Change permission.
D. Modify the shared folder permissions on the GFXTemplates folder to grant the Users group Allow -
Read and Allow - Write permissions.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company's network contains a RIS server, a
DHCP server, and a DNS server.
You need to install Windows XP Professional on a computer that does not have a CD-ROM drive. The
computer has the following configuration:
¡¤a Pentium III -GHz processor
¡¤a -GB hard disk
¡¤128 MB of RA
¡¤a modem in the first PCI slo
¡¤an Ethernet card in the last ISA slo
You attempt to install Windows XP Professional on the computer by using a RIS bootable floppy disk.
However, you are unable to connect to the RIS server.
What should you do?
A. Move the Ethernet card to the first ISA slot.
B. Remove the Ethernet card and replace it with an Ethernet card that is PXE compliant.
C. Share the RIS image on the RIS server. Create a network bootable floppy disk. Insert the floppy disk,
and install Windows XP Professional from the share.
D. Place the NDIS network drivers in the root directory of the RIS bootable floppy disk. Use the floppy disk
to connect to the RIS server.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are the desktop administrator for your company's sales department. Susan is a user in the sales
department. Susan's Windows XP Professional computer has a single hard disk, which is formatted as
NTFS.
Susan's computer contains a folder named C:\Files1. The C:\Files1 folder is shared as Files1. Users in
the sales department have permissions to create files in the Files1 shared folder.
Company policy allows interns to read files, but prohibits interns from creating files in the Files1 shared
folder. Company policy allows members of the Sales group and the Marketing group to create files in the
Files1 shared folder.
Carlos is an intern. He is a member of the Interns group, the Sales group, and the Marketing group.
Susan reports that Carlos is able to create files in the Files1 shared folder.
You inspect Susan's computer to evaluate the Files1 shared folder. Permissions on Susan's computer are
granted as shown in the following table.
You want ensure that Carlos cannot create files in the Files1 shared folder. What should you do?
A. On the Files1 shared folder, remove the Interns group's access.
B. On the C:\Files1 folder, remove the Interns group's access.
C. On the C:\Files1 folder, assign the Interns group Deny - Full Control permission.
D. On the C:\Files1 folder, assign the Interns group Deny - Write permission.
Answer: D

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