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Code d'Examen: GCIH

Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Incident Handler)

Questions et réponses: 335 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true about a keylogger?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It records all keystrokes on the victim's computer in a predefined log file.
B. It can be remotely installed on a computer system.
C. It is a software tool used to trace all or specific activities of a user on a computer.
D. It uses hidden code to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.2 Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable to its
users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following tools is used for vulnerability scanning and calls Hydra to launch a dictionary
attack?
A. Whishker
B. Nessus
C. SARA
D. Nmap
Answer: B

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NO.4 Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security features
such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering on his wireless
router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is sometimes 16 Mbps and
sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management utility wireless router and finds
out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through his wireless connection. Paul checks the
router's logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C

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NO.5 Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of Internet
forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets automatically executed
and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc. Which of the following types of
Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.6 You see the career section of a company's Web site and analyze the job profile requirements. You
conclude that the company wants professionals who have a sharp knowledge of Windows server 2003
and Windows active directory installation and placement. Which of the following steps are you using to
perform hacking?
A. Scanning
B. Covering tracks
C. Reconnaissance
D. Gaining access
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It disrupts services to a specific computer.
B. It changes the configuration of the TCP/IP protocol.
C. It saturates network resources.
D. It disrupts connections between two computers, preventing communications between services.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.8 Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A

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NO.9 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters ='or''=' as a username and
successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site. The We-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a
__________.
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B

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NO.10 Buffer overflows are one of the major errors used for exploitation on the Internet today. A buffer
overflow occurs when a particular operation/function writes more data into a variable than the variable
was designed to hold.
Which of the following are the two popular types of buffer overflows?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Dynamic buffer overflows
B. Stack based buffer overflow
C. Heap based buffer overflow
D. Static buffer overflows
Answer: B, C

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NO.11 In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes to
the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
Answer: A

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NO.12 Adam, a malicious hacker, wants to perform a reliable scan against a remote target. He is not
concerned about being stealth at this point.
Which of the following type of scans would be most accurate and reliable?
A. UDP sacn
B. TCP Connect scan
C. ACK scan
D. Fin scan
Answer: B

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NO.13 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
StackGuard (as used by Immunix), ssp/ProPolice (as used by OpenBSD), and Microsoft's /GS option use
______ defense against buffer overflow attacks.
A. canary
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D

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NO.15 Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to train the
members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the incident response
team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN.
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system.
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or
modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.17 Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of the
following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following statements about buffer overflow is true?
A. It manages security credentials and public keys for message encryption.
B. It is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates released between major service pack
releases.
C. It is a condition in which an application receives more data than it is configured to accept.
D. It is a false warning about a virus.
Answer: C

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NO.19 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He performs Web vulnerability scanning on the We-are-secure server. The
output of the scanning test is as follows:
C:\whisker.pl -h target_IP_address
-- whisker / v1.4.0 / rain forest puppy / www.wiretrip.net -- = - = - = - = - =
= Host: target_IP_address
= Server: Apache/1.3.12 (Win32) ApacheJServ/1.1
mod_ssl/2.6.4 OpenSSL/0.9.5a mod_perl/1.22
+ 200 OK: HEAD /cgi-bin/printenv
John recognizes /cgi-bin/printenv vulnerability ('Printenv' vulnerability) in the We_are_secure server.
Which of the following statements about 'Printenv' vulnerability are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. This vulnerability helps in a cross site scripting attack.
B. 'Printenv' vulnerability maintains a log file of user activities on the Website, which may be useful for the
attacker.
C. The countermeasure to 'printenv' vulnerability is to remove the CGI script.
D. With the help of 'printenv' vulnerability, an attacker can input specially crafted links and/or other
malicious scripts.
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.20 Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of running
the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be used as
tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.21 Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
Answer: D

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NO.22 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. Company has a Windows-based network. All
computers run on Windows XP. Manager of the Sales department complains Adam about the unusual
behavior of his computer. He told Adam that some pornographic contents are suddenly appeared on his
computer overnight. Adam suspects that some malicious software or Trojans have been installed on the
computer. He runs some diagnostics programs and Port scanners and found that the Port 12345, 12346,
and 20034 are open. Adam also noticed some tampering with the Windows registry, which causes one
application to run every time when Windows start.
Which of the following is the most likely reason behind this issue?
A. Cheops-ng is installed on the computer.
B. Elsave is installed on the computer.
C. NetBus is installed on the computer.
D. NetStumbler is installed on the computer.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which of the following are the primary goals of the incident handling team?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Freeze the scene.
B. Repair any damage caused by an incident.
C. Prevent any further damage.
D. Inform higher authorities.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.24 Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just bought a
brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months of working on his
new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam uses antivirus software,
anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft patches. After another month of
working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even more noticeably slow. He also notices a
window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly disappear. He has seen these windows show up,
even when he has not been on the Internet. Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free
space available. Since his hard drive is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem.?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Choose and reorder the steps of an incident handling process in their correct order.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.26 John works as a Professional Penetration Tester. He has been assigned a project to test the Website
security of www.we-are-secure Inc. On the We-are-secure Website login page, he enters ='or''=' as a
username and successfully logs on to the user page of the Web site. Now, John asks the we-aresecure
Inc. to improve the login page PHP script. Which of the following suggestions can John give to improve
the security of the we-are-secure Website login page from the SQL injection attack?
A. Use the escapeshellarg() function
B. Use the session_regenerate_id() function
C. Use the mysql_real_escape_string() function for escaping input
D. Use the escapeshellcmd() function
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following commands is used to access Windows resources from Linux workstation?
A. mutt
B. scp
C. rsync
D. smbclient
Answer: D

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NO.29 You have configured a virtualized Internet browser on your Windows XP professional computer. Using
the virtualized Internet browser, you can protect your operating system from which of the following?
A. Brute force attack
B. Mail bombing
C. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack
D. Malware installation from unknown Web sites
Answer: D

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NO.30 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to attacks. As a
countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP printing capability
from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against __________.
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: GSSP-JaVa

Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Secure Software Programmer – Java)

Questions et réponses: 275 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following functions are performed by methods of the
HttpSessionActivationListener interface?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Notifying the object when it is bound to a session.
B. Notifying an attribute that a session has just migrated from one JVM to another.
C. Notifying the object when it is unbound from a session.
D. Notifying an attribute that a session is about to migrate from one JVM to another.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Given a code of a class named PrintString that prints a string.
1. public class PrintString{
2. public static void main(String args[]){
3. /*insert code here */
4. /* insert code here */
5. System.out.println(str);
6. }
7. }
Which of the following code fragments can be inserted in the class PrintString to print the output
"4247"?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
B. StringBuffer str= new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
C. StringBuffer str=new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.substring(3,6).delete(1,2).insert(1,"24");
D. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.deleteCharAt(6).replace(1,3,"24").delete(0,3);
E. String str="123456789";
str=(str-"123").replace(1,3,"24")-"89";
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 You work as a Software Developer for UcTech Inc. You create a session using the HttpSession
interface. You want the attributes to be informed when the session is moved from one JVM to another and
also when an attribute is added or removed from the session. Which of the following interfaces can you
use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. HttpSessionBindingListener
B. HttpSessionListener
C. HttpSessionActivationListener
D. HttpSessionAttributeListener
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a deployment descriptor code that contains
three valid
<security-constraint> elements.
All of them constraining a Web resource Res1, the
<auth-constraint> sub-element of the <security-constraint>
elements are as follows.
<auth-constraint>Admin</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint>Manager</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint/>
Which of the following can access the resource Res1?
A. Only Manager can access the resource.
B. No one can access the resource.
C. Everyone can access the resource.
D. Only Admin can access the resource.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Mark writes a class Practice.java. This class needs to access the com.bar.Test class that is stored in
the Test.jar file in the directory /practice. How would you compile your code?
A. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar Practice.java
B. javac -classpath /practice/ Practice.java
C. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar/com/bar Practice.java
D. javac -classpath /practice Practice.java
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following classes is an engine class that provides an opaque representation of
cryptographic parameters?
A. DSAPublicKeySpec
B. AlgorithmParameterGenerator
C. DSAParameterSpec
D. AlgorithmParameters
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about programmatic security are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The bean provider is responsible for writing code for programmatic security.
B. It is also called as instance level security.
C. It is implemented using methods of the EJBContext interface.
D. It is implemented using the methods of the UserTransaction interface.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements correctly describe the features of the singleton pattern?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Singletons are used to control object creation by limiting the number to one but allowing the flexibility to
create more objects if the situation changes.
B. Singletons can only be stateless, providing utility functions that need no more information than their
parameters.
C. A singleton class may disappear if no object holds a reference to the Singleton object, and it will be
reloaded later when the singleton is needed again.
D. The behavior of a singleton can be obtained by static fields and methods such as
java.lang.Math.sin(double).
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following deployment descriptor elements must contain the <transport-guarantee>
element as its mandatory sub-element?
A. <user-data-constraint>
B. <web-resource-collection>
C. <auth-constraint>
D. <login-config>
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An inner class cannot be defined as private.
B. An inner class cannot be defined as protected.
C. An inner class can be defined as private.
D. An inner class can extend another class.
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 You work as a programmer for PassGuide.Inc. You have a session object named session1 with an
attribute named Attribute1, and an HttpSessionBindingEvent object binding1 bound to session1.
Which of the following will be used to retrieve Attribute1?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Object obj=binding1.getSession().getAttribute("Attribute1");
B. Object obj=binding1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
C. Long MyAttribute=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
D. String str1=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
E. Object obj=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is true?
A. All UTF characters are eight bits long.
B. All UTF characters are all sixteen bits long.
C. All UTF characters are twenty four bits long.
D. All bytecode characters are sixteen bits long.
E. All unicode characters are sixteen bits long.
Answer: E

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NO.13 You have written the following code snippet.
1. public class Read {
2. protected int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Text extends Read {
5. /*insert code here*/
6. }
Which of the following methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. private int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
B. protected long ReadText(int x, int y) { return 0; }
C. protected long ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
D. protected int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
E. private int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
F. public int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
G. protected long ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
Answer: A,B,C,D,F

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NO.14 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops the following deployment descriptor code.
<web-app . . . .
>
<display-name>A Secure Application</display-name><servlet>
..
.
<security-role-ref
>
<role-name>Manager</role-name>
<role-link>Admin</role-link>
</security-role-ref>
</servlet>
<security-role>
<role-name>Programmer</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Employee</role-name>
</security-role>
</web-app>
Which of the following is a valid isUserInRole() method call that can be made if request is the
HttpServletRequest request?
A. request.isUserInRole("Programmer");
B. request.isUserInRole("Manager");
C. request.isUserInRole("Admin");
D. request.isUserInRole("Employee");
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about a JAR file are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It cannot be accessed through a class path, nor they can be used by java and javac.
B. It is used to compress and archive data.
C. It can be moved from one computer to another.
D. It is created by using the jar command.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 Which of the following elements are the subelements of the mime-mapping element in a
deployment descriptor file?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. exception-type
B. error-code
C. extension
D. mime-type
E. servlet-class
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 John works as a Programmer for Technostar Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
1. class WrapperClass{
2. public static void main(String[] argv){
3. String str2 = Double.toString(12);
4. String str1 = Double.toHexString(12);
5. System.out.println(str1+str2);
6. }
7. }
What will happen when John attempts to compile and execute the code?
A. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toHexString() method.
B. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 8p312 as the output.
C. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 0x1.8p312.0 as the output.
D. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toString() method.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following methods of the EJBContext interface can be called by both the BMT and CMT
beans?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. getCallerPrincipal()
B. getRollbackOnly()
C. getUserTransaction()
D. isCallerInRole()
Answer: A,D

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NO.19 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a Website that uses HTML and processes
HTML validation. Which of the following are the advantages of the HTML application?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It provides password protection for a Web page or directory
B. It can be accessed by more visitors.
C. It provides faster loading.
D. It is easier to update and maintain the site.
E. It protects the source or images of a HTML Web page.
F. It puts less load on the server.
Answer: B,C,D,F

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NO.20 John works as a Software Developer for VenTech Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
public class vClass extends Thread
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
vClass vc=new vClass();
vc.run();
}
public void start()
{
for(int k=0;k<20;k++)
{
System.out.println("The value of k = "+k);
}
}
}
What will happen when he attempts to compile and execute the application.?
A. The application will compile successfully and the values from 0 to 19 will be displayed as the output.
B. A compile-time error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
C. A runtime error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
D. The application will compile successfully but will not display anything as the output.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: AWMP

Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Wireless Mesh Professional 4.2)

Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 What limit does receiver sensitivity describe?
A. the maximum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate
B. the minimum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate
C. the receive signal level strength, which is always the same for each rate
D. the maximum output transmit power for receivers that are in range
E. the maximum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate (5 - 45.45%)
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the Aruba recommended mounting arrangement for a pair of identical omnidirectional antennas
in an outdoor deployment using 802.11n?
A. Over and under
B. One horizontal and one vertical
C. Any arrangement that separates the antennas by 45 degrees
D. Install the two antennas far apart
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the maximum percentage obstruction of the first Fresnel zone in a point to point link?
A. 35%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: B

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NO.4 In an Aruba mesh design which mesh scenarios are valid?
A. Point-to-point
B. Point-to-multipoint (hub and spoke)
C. Point-to-point-to-point (linear)
D. Full mesh (redundant links)
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of these statements is correct in regards to Fresnel zone and mesh network design? Choose all
that apply.
A. Mesh network design does not need to account for Fresnel zone.
B. Fresnel zone clearance of at least 60% is required for mesh radio links.
C. Fresnel zone only comes into play when designing Wi-Fi client coverage.
D. Fresnel zone, Free Space Path Loss, EIRP and receive sensitivity are all factors that should be
considered.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What effect on RSSI does antenna polarization of the receiver cause?
A. an increase in RSSI when polarized the same as the transmitter
B. an increase in RSSI when polarized exactly opposite from the transmitter
C. no affect to the signal, if the antenna beamwidth are properly aligned.
D. no effect if the deployment is within 30 degrees latitude of the equator
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement about Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) is true?
A. EIRP is the path loss from the transmitter to the receiver in dB
B. EIRP is equal to ((transmit power + antenna gain) - connector and cable loss)
C. EIRP is not important because local regulations do not limit transmit power
D. EIRP is measured in relation to a spherical isotropic radiator
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are the recommended deployment scenarios for MST200.?
A. Part of a point to point link
B. Providing access to mobile clients
C. As a core node in a large mesh
D. As an edge node in a mesh
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Consider a radio configured for 20dBm conducted power connected to a 3dbi antenna.
What is the resulting EIRP in mW?
A. 100 mW
B. 200 mW
C. 150 mW
D. 250 mW
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is most correct and should be considered in a typical handheld client Wi-Fi access
mesh design?
A. The upstream and downstream link budgets between clients and mesh routers are symmetrical.
B. Client devices typically broadcast at higher EIRP than mesh routers.
C. Client EIRP and receive sensitivity is generally the limiting factor for range.
D. Mesh backhaul links and client access should all be on the same channel to maximize connectivity.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which technical specifications of the antenna should be considered during selection of an antenna?
A. Frequency range
B. Supported data rates and modulation technologies
C. Polarization
D. Gain
E. Encryption modes
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 In RF mathematics, 1 Watt of power equals what measurement of dBm?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
E. 100
Answer: D

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NO.13 A radio with 100 mW of TX power is connected through a 50-foot cable with 3 dB of loss to an antenna
with 10 dBi of gain. What is the EIRP in mW?
A. 100 mW
B. 250 mW
C. 500 mW
D. 1 W
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is the best answer regarding lightning arrestors?
A. when installing where lightning is common
B. when installing where power surges are common
C. always, because the outdoor environment is unpredictable
D. whenever the appropriate regulatory agency requires them
Answer: C

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NO.15 When RSSI is increased by 6 dB, how many times approximately does the signal strength increase by?
A. 1 time
B. 2 times
C. 8 times
D. 4 times
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-156

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe® LiveCycle® ES2 Form Developer ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 The form you are creating relies on a client-side script that will change the layout of the form based on
user actions. What file type should you create?
A. A non-interactive static PDF form
B. An interactive static PDF form
C. A non-interactive dynamic PDF form
D. An interactive dynamic PDF form
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which DOM is merged with the Template DOM to create the Form DOM when rendering an XML
based PDF?
A. The Data DOM
B. The Layout DOM
C. The Source Set DOM
D. The Configuration DOM
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are creating a form template that will be used as a starting point for a series of forms. Which file
format should you use to save your form template.?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are rendering an XML based PDF. In what order is the DOM created?
A. Data DOM, Template DOM, Form DOM, Layout DOM
B. Template DOM, Data DOM, Form DOM, Layout DOM
C. Template DOM, Data DOM, Layout DOM, Form DOM
D. Data DOM, Template DOM, Layout DOM, Form DOM
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have added an insertion point to your form template. Which file format should you use to save your
form template?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which series of events are triggered when the Layout DOM and Form DOM are created?
A. The initialize, calculate and full events
B. The initialize, calculate and validate events
C. The enter, calculate and validate events
D. The change, calculate and validate events
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which DOM must be created before you are able to access the number of pages on a dynamic form
prior to it being rendered on a client s machine?
A. The Template DOM
B. The Data DOM
C. The Form DOM
D. The Layout DOM
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are designing a PDF form where end-users will need to add annotations or comments to the PDF.
Which form type should you create?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Static PDF form (*.pdf)
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are designing a PDF form that will contain a table where the user can add and remove rows. Which
form type should you create?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which DOM would you access to determine the value of a specific node in the XML data stream that
has been merged with the form template?
A. The Form DOM
B. The Source Set DOM
C. The Template DOM
D. The Data DOM
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are creating a template by using LiveCycle Designer. The template will be posted to a public
Website as a standalone form. Customers will download and open the form using Adobe Reader. Which
file format should you use to save your form template?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which event signals that an XML based PDF has been fully rendered as a PDF?
A. form:ready
B. layout:ready
C. docReady
D. intialize
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are creating multiple forms and want to ensure the smallest file size when saved to the server. What
file type should you create?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe Static PDF Form (*.pdf)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: A

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NO.14 In which version of Adobe Reader are the dynamic features of the XFA Object Model supported?
A. Versions 5.x and greater
B. Versions 6.x and greater
C. Versions 7.x and greater
D. Versions 8.x and greater
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which object is a child of the XFA DOM?
A. The Data Description DOM
B. The Data DOM
C. The dataSets DOM
D. The event DOM
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-055

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe InDesign CS3 ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 You are importing XML into an existing InDesign document. You want to format the text as efficiently as
possible by using existing InDesign styles. Which feature should you use?
A.Map Tags to Styles
B.Map Styles to Tags
C.Load DTD
D.Merge Content
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which type of file is generated after you export an InDesign document to Digital Editions?
A.ZIP
B.EPUB
C.RAR
D.EPGT
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which linked files are NOT copied to the package folder when you package an InDesign document?
A.Linked images on the Pasteboard.
B.Linked images in the Slug area.
C.Linked images in the Bleed area.
D.Images on hidden layers.
Correct:A

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NO.4 What happens to the colors in a document when you apply Simulate Overprint to the document when
exporting it to PDF?
A.Spot colors are converted to Process color equivalents.
B.Process colors are converted to Spot color equivalents.
C.All colors in the document are retained.
D.Overprinted objects are mapped to the same plate.
Correct:A

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NO.5 The visual design of an InDesign layout is different from the XML content being imported. Where will
the XML data be placed in InDesign when you import the data?
A.At the end of the InDesign layout.
B.At the top of the InDesign layout.
C.In the structure pane.
D.In the tagged frames in the InDesign document.
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which information is displayed in the Info panel when you select a text frame?
A.The height and width of the text frame.
B.The X and Y coordinates of the frame reference point.
C.The character, word, sentence, and paragraph counts of the text in the frame.
D.The color values of the text in the frame.
Correct:A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. You draw a red and a blue circle by using the Ellipse tool. You center the red
circle inside the blue circle as shown in the exhibit What happens when you select both circles and then
select Exclude Overlap from the Pathfinder panel?
A.The two circles merge and become one large, blue circle.
B.The operation cannot be completed because the result would be an empty region.
C.The blue circle disappears, leaving only the red circle.
D.The red circle disappears, leaving a hole in the center of the blue circle. The object that remains is red.
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which is included when you export an InDesign file as XML?
A.Only tagged content.
B.Tagged content and its formatting.
C.Only the layout of tagged content.
D.Tagged content, its formatting, and layout.
Correct:A

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NO.9 Which item is exported when you export an InDesign document as XHTML?
A.Graphics created in InDesign
B.Embedded images
C.Bullets and numbered lists
D.Bookmarks
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which transparency issues can you identify by using the Flattener Preview panel?
A.Precise printing of spot colors.
B.Accurate color.
C.Impact of different blending modes.
D.Rasterized vector text.
Correct:D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button. Using the Pen tool, you draw the curve as shown in Figure 4.1A. You now want
to edit this curve and create the one as shown in Figure 4.1B. What should you do?
A.Use the Selection tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the
direction point downward to its new position.
B.Use the Direct Selection tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the
direction point downward to its new position.
C.Use the Convert Direction Point tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then,
drag the direction point downward to its new position.
D.Use the Pen tool to select the right direction point of the center anchor point. Then, drag the direction
point downward to its new position.
Correct:C

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NO.12 You want to rotate a graphic around its upper-left corner by using the Free Transform tool. What should
you do?
A.In the Control panel, set the Reference Point option for the graphic to the upper-left corner. Then, rotate
the graphic.
B.Drag the center point of the graphic to the upper-left corner by using the Free Transform tool. Then,
rotate the graphic.
C.Place the Free Transform tool at the upper-left corner of the graphic. Then, rotate the graphic.
D.You cannot rotate the graphic around its upper-left corner with the Free Transform tool.
Correct:D

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NO.13 You have placed a PSD file containing editable text into an InDesign document. You want the font used
in the PSD file to remain as vector and to be saved during the Package process. What should you do?
A.Save the image as Photoshop PDF with embedded fonts.
B.Save the image as Photoshop PDF without embedding fonts.
C.Save the image as high resolution TIFF before placing in InDesign.
D.Save the image as a 24-bit PNG file before placing it into InDesign.
Correct:A

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NO.14 You have three objects in your document named Object 1, Object 2, and Object 3. You select Object 1
in your layout and apply a drop shadow to it. With the object selected, you create a new object style and
name it Drop Shadow. You then apply the Drop Shadow style to Object 2 and Object 3. You edit the Drop
Shadow style. Which objects will be modified to reflect the changes to the style?
A.All three objects are modified.
B.Only Object 1 is modified.
C.Only Object 2 and Object 3 are modified.
D.None of the objects are modified.
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which is checked as part of the preflight process?
A.Transparency Flattener Preset options
B.Ink Limit
C.Image Scaling Factor
D.Placed InDesign files
Correct:D

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NO.16 You create a button on a master page, add Rollover and Down states to the button, define the
appearance of the button states, and add a hyperlink destination to the button. Which component will be
missing when you export the InDesign document as a PDF document?
A.The Rollover and Down states of the button.
B.The appearance of the states of the button.
C.All actions performed on the button.
D.The hyperlink destination attached to the button.
Correct:D

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NO.17 You have a database that contains 25 records. Each record contains multiple data fields. You want to
place the data as repeated data in your layout. Which option in the XML Import Options dialog box should
you choose?
A.Cloning
B.Duplicating
C.Copying
D.Merging
Correct:A

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NO.18 Which element is NOT tagged in XML when you export a layout to XML after auto tagging?
A.Text frames
B.Table cells
C.Footnotes
D.Images
Correct:C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button. You use the Polygon tool to create the five-sided star as shown in the exhibit.
You add a 6-point black stroke to the object and set the Join to Miter join. What happens to the points of
this star when you decrease the value of Miter Limit?
A.The points of the star eventually are beveled, or cut off.
B.The points of the star grow longer.
C.The points of the star grow thinner.
D.The points of the star are not changed.
Correct:A

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NO.20 You use the Position tool to select and resize the content of a graphic frame. You press the Shift key,
select a frame handle, and drag inward. What happens to the frame and its content?
A.The frame is resized proportionately, but the content remains of the same size.
B.The content is resized proportionately, but the frame remains of the same size.
C.Both the frame and the content are resized proportionately.
D.The content or frame cannot be resized by using the Position tool.
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-067

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Premiere/Encore/OnLocation CS3 ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 An Encore project has four imported audio files in the AIFF-C, DTS, mp3, and MOV formats.
When previewing these files in the project panel, you notice that only two files play. What could be
the probable cause?
A.MOV requires QuickTime to be installed, and DTS does not play during preview.
B.Encore does not support the AIFF-C format and DTS does not play during preview.
C.Encore does not support mp3 and MOV requires QuickTime to be installed.
D.Encore does not support mp3 and AIFF-C audio files.
Correct:B

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NO.2 Your Encore project has a blank menu. In the Library panel, you select a button and click Place.
The button appears in the Menu Viewer. You click Place again. What is the result?
A.The original button disappears from the Menu Viewer.
B.Another button, which is aligned with the first button in a grid, appears.
C.A warning appears that you have already applied the selection.
D.This button is saved as a favorite.
Correct:B

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NO.3 You want to use some movie files for a DVD in Encore. You want to quickly lay out the DVD
navigation in the Flowchart panel, without transcoding the movie files. What should you do?
A.Load the movie files as New Items in the Library panel, and drag them to the Flowchart panel.
B.Import the movie files as Timelines, and double-click them to move them to the Flowchart panel.
C.Drag the imported movie files in a Project panel folder, and drag this folder to the Flowchart panel.
D.Drag the movie files from Windows Explorer or the Mac OS Finder directly to the Flowchart panel.
Correct:D

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NO.4 You are using Adobe Premiere Pro CS3. You want to create a title and share it with your
colleagues. What should you do to allow your colleagues to import your title by using an external
file?
A.Export the title as a .ptl file.
B.Export the title as a .psd file.
C.Export the title as a .prtl file.
D.Export the title as a .prproj file.
Correct:C

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NO.5 In Encore, you want to customize the routing order of a button using the Routing icon. What
should you do?
A.Drag the navigation arrow of the Routing icon to the button.
B.Drag the menu button to a navigation arrow within the Routing icon.
C.Select the navigation arrow, and select the button.
D.Select the button, and drag the navigation arrow to the button.
Correct:D

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NO.6 You want to capture a large segment from a videotape. The footage in the videotape contains
multiple pauses and stops. Which option in the Capture panel should you use to automatically
obtain multiple clips from the segment?
A.Handles
B.Scene Detect
C.Log Clip
D.Device Control
Correct:B

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NO.7 In the Encore Project panel, you have a folder named ABC. You want to create a new folder
inside ABC. What should you do?
A.Open ABC and choose File > New > New Folder.
B.Select ABC, press CTRL (Windows) or COMMAND (Mac) +N, and choose Folder.
C.Drag ABC to the Create A New Item icon and choose Folder.
D.Select any item in ABC, and choose File > New > New Folder.
Correct:D

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NO.8 You want to create a frame-by-frame animation by using the Digital Video Recorder (DVR) in
OnLocation. After recording a frame, you want to check the differences between the last recorded
frame and the current live feed from the camera. What should you do?
A.Set Split Mode to Auto and click Stop Motion.
B.Set the DVR Slave To option to Motion and click Record.
C.Click Record and then click U. Scan.
D.Click Stop Motion and then click Freeze.
Correct:A

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NO.9 You have built an Encore project that includes Closed Captioning assistance for the hearing
impaired. How did you create the project?
A.In the NTSC format.
B.In the PAL format.
C.As a Blu-ray project.
D.As a Flash project.
Correct:A

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NO.10 You want to immediately recognize the frames of a recording in which light is strong and
exceeds the brightness levels for a TV monitor. What should you do?
A.Drag the Phase dial in the Field Monitor.
B.Increase the Illumination slider in the Vectorscope.
C.Decrease the Level slider in the DV Quality Monitor.
D.Drag the Intensity dial in the Waveform Monitor.
Correct:C

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NO.11 You have a main menu and some unlinked timelines in the Flowchart panel in Encore. You want
to set the main menu as the end action for each timeline. What should you do?
A.Drag the menu over the timelines with the Move tool.
B.Drag each timeline over the menu with the Move tool.
C.Drag each timeline over the menu with the Direct Select tool.
D.Drag the menu over the timelines with the Direct Select tool.
Correct:D

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NO.12 You connect a DV camcorder to your computer and open the Capture panel. You want to that
Premiere is controlling the device and receiving data. What should you do?
A.Test the capture by using the Generic Device Brand option.
B.Test the capture by using the Standard Device Type option.
C.Obtain the status information by using Check Status.
D.Obtain the status information by using Go Online for Device Info.
Correct:C

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NO.13 In the Flowchart panel in Encore, you link a menu button to a timeline and then link the timeline
to a slide show as an end action. You move the Timeline thumbnail to another location with the
Move tool. Why does the attached slide show retain its location?
A.The slide show has no end action and cannot be moved.
B.The slide show was manually placed in the Flowchart panel.
C.The timeline was incorrectly linked to a Slideshow Chapter.
D.The timeline and the slide show were linked automatically.
Correct:B

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NO.14 You import a Premiere Pro project with a frame size of 320 pixels by 240 pixels into your project
that has a frame size of 720 pixels by 480 pixels. In the imported project, some of the offline files
were created by logging clips in the Capture panel. You want to perform a batch capture of these
files and create clips that have the same frame size and settings as your current project. What
should you do?
A.Select the files in the Project panel and clear the Capture Settings option.
B.Double-click the files and use the Edit Offline Files dialog box.
C.Start the batch capture and choose the Override Capture Settings option.
D.Change the Capture Settings in the Project Settings.
Correct:C

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NO.15 During the preview of a DV tape in the Capture panel, you click In and Out to mark a portion of
the tape. Now, you want to replace this In Point with another frame. What should you do?
A.Move to the previous In Point and then click In/Out.
B.Raise the value of the Handles option and then click In/Out.
C.Move to another point in the tape with a transport control and then click Set In.
D.Deselect Scene Detect and then click In/Out.
Correct:C

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NO.16 You want to check and adjust the lights in the location of a recording. You also want to check
the settings of the camera for exposure and white balance. What should you do?
A.Use the Notes information in the DVR.
B.Check the Iris/Exposure option in the SureShot.
C.Increase the Bright dial in the Field Monitor.
D.Click Lock in the Spectra 60 Video Analyzer.
Correct:B

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NO.17 You create a graphic in Photoshop for use in an Encore menu. You need to enlarge the graphic
without losing its quality. Which graphic type should you avoid?
A.Vector shapes
B.Vector masks
C.Bitmap images
D.All graphical elements
Correct:C

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NO.18 When you open an Encore project, the Locate Asset dialog box opens. You want the Locate
Asset dialog box to open when you open the project the next time. You also do NOT want to
change the location of your files. What should you do?
A.Select Skip Missing Files.
B.Relink the missing assets.
C.Select Offline.
D.Create a replacement asset.
Correct:A

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NO.19 You transcode a video file in Encore and choose a variable bit rate compression. You adjust the
maximum bitrate from 8 Mbps to 9 Mbps. Which two tasks have you performed? (Choose two.)
A.Adjusted the maximum bitrate to the maximum allowable for DVD assets.
B.Adjusted the maximum bitrate to the maximum allowable for Blu-ray Disk assets.
C.Raised the quality of the resulting video.
D.Lowered the quality of the resulting video.
E.Retained the quality of the resulting video at the same level.
Correct:A C

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NO.20 Which layer-name prefix is required to create text layers within a button layer set?
A.None
B.(%)
C.(!)
D.(+>)
Correct:A

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-090

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Dreamweaver CS4 ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 Which tool is required to create and deploy a Web site?
A. Web browser
B. Dreamweaver
C. production server
D. application server
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which would NOT be a potential problem level that is detected by the Browser Compatibility Check in
Dreamweaver?
A. errors
B. warnings
C. design issues
D. informational messages
Answer: C

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NO.3 In which color will the text Formatting with CSS be displayed in the browser?
A. red
B. blue
C. black
D. green
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which reports are available within Dreamweaver HTML reports to assist you in Web site maintenance?
A. Accessibility, Untitled Documents, and Missing Alt Text
B. Broken Links, Missing Alt Text, and Untitled Documents
C. Missing Alt Text, Untitled Documents, and Orphaned Files
D. XHTML Validation, Browser Compatibility Check, and External Links
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two categories of reporting are available in the Dreamweaver Site Reports interface? (Choose
two.)
A. HTML Reports
B. Workflow Reports
C. Information Reports
D. Accessibility Reports
E. Browser Compatibility Reports
Answer: AB

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NO.6 You want to to create a report on whether a page complies with Section 508 standards?
A. select File > Validate > Markup
B. select File > Check Page > Browser Compatibility
C. select Site > Reports, choose Accessibility and click Run
D. select View > Code View Options > Syntax Error Alerts in Info Bar
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which product is required to enable users to play Flash video on a Web page without progressive
downloading?
A. Flash Media Encoding Server
B. Flash Media Interactive Server
C. Flash Media Streaming Server
D. Flash Media Rights Management Server
Answer: C

Adobe   9A0-090   9A0-090   9A0-090

NO.8 Which are the three categories of files displayed by the Dreamweaver Link Checker?
A. Broken Links, External Links, and Invalid Links
B. Broken Links, External Links, and Missing Files
C. Broken Links, External Links, and Orphaned Files
D. Broken Links, External Links, and Unreachable Files
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have just become the Webmaster for a Web site you did NOT create. You want to locate and
correct broken links within this website.
Where can you go within Dreamweaver to locate broken links and open each page so you can correct
these issues?
A. use HTML Reports in the Site Reports tab of the Results panel
B. use Validation in the Results panel and choose Validate Entire Current Local Site
C. use Browser Compatibility in the Results panel and click Settings in the pop-up menu
D. use Link Checker in the Results panel and select Broken Links in the Show pop-up menu
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which is required when hosting a Web site on a publicly addressable production server?
A. FTP server
B. SSL certificate
C. Web server
D. Application server
Answer: C

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