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Code d'Examen: 1z0-539

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle GoldenGate 10 Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to configure replication of CREATE TABLE statements from oracle to Teradata, so that only
new table created in your mapped source schema is Replicated. Which should be the part of solution?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. DDL INCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
C. DDL INCLUDE UNMAPPED in extra parameter file.
D. DDL EXCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want encrypt message sent or over TCP/IP to server usserver1, where the goldenGate manage
process is running on port 7809. Your requirements include using a custom encryption key and advanced
encryption standard (AES), and you have created an ENCKEYS file What parameters should you use?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT AES, ENCRYPT KEY
C. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT AES, ENCRYPTKEY MYKWY, MBRPORT 7809
D. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT BLOWFISH ENCRYPTKEY MYKEY
Answer: D

Oracle examen   certification 1z0-539   certification 1z0-539

NO.3 Which Manager Parameter sets will report current lag every hour and write a critical message for any
Extract/Replicate with a lag over 60 minutes?
A. LAGBEPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFO 1 and LAGCRITICAL 60
B. LAGREPORTMINUTES 60, LAGINFOHOURS 1
C. LAGREPOBT 1, I.AGCRITICALHOURS 1
D. LAGREPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFOMINUTES 30, LAGCR JTTCAI-M I
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which argument is used to set the maximum size of the EXTTRAIL or RMTTRAL.
A. MAXSIZE
B. TRAILSIZE
C. HAXTRAILSI2E
D. TRAILMAXSIZE F
E. MEGABYTES
Answer: E

Oracle examen   1z0-539   1z0-539 examen   1z0-539

NO.5 Which three describe a valid OGG Event Action?
A. Stop the process
B. Write a checkpoint before and/or after writing the record to the trail.
C. Run a shell command
D. Purge old trail files
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle examen   1z0-539   1z0-539 examen   1z0-539   1z0-539 examen

NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
By default, which option is evaluated first, SQLEXEC or filter statement?
A.SQLEXEC
B. FILTER
C.There is no default; it is set with the after filter I before filter.
D. It depends on their position in the parameter file; the first encountered is executed first.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which translations are captured if you ADD EXTRACT BEGIN now 1:00 p.m., but START EXTRACT at
2:00 p.m.?
A. Transactions started on or after 1:00 p.m.
B. Transactions started on or after 2:00 p.m.
C. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 1:00 p.m.
D. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 2:00 p.m.
Answer: A

Oracle   1z0-539   1z0-539 examen   1z0-539

NO.8 What parameter provides options for compression and encryption?
A. RMTHOST
B. TARGET
C. TCPIP
D. TARGET DB
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1z0-539   1z0-539   1z0-539 examen

NO.9 What GoldenGate process is responsible for capturing changes in the source database?
A. Manager
B. Replicate
C. Extract
D. Server Collector
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statements are true of goldenGate password encryption?
A password can be encrypted and pasted into a parameter file. An encrypted password can be generated
using the default key. An encrypted password can be generated using a user defined-key.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3
E. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-530

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Enterprise Manager 11g Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 That EM feature can Bruce use to monitor non-Oracle components from the Grid Control console?
A. Management Plug-ins
B. Connector Framework
C. User Exits
D. This feature is not supported in Enterprise Manager.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-530   1Z0-530

NO.2 What is needed to establish monitoring of SSL-encrypted HTTP traffic?
A. Monitoring of SSL traffic is not supported by RUEI.
B. Installation of an SSL decryption card is required in the RUEI server.
C. A copy of the SSL key and certificate need to be uploaded to RUEI.
D. RUEI should negotiate a private SSL key/certificate pair with each Web server.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-530   1Z0-530 examen   certification 1Z0-530

NO.3 You are trying to diagnose performance issues in a slow database. Where can you collect system
statistics?
A. Memory Access Module
B. V$_SYSMEM
C. The oemdb.log consolidated log file
D. Data Masking
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-530   1Z0-530   1Z0-530   1Z0-530 examen

NO.4 In whichtwo locations can you find the installation and configuration logs for a management agent?
A. $AGE.T_HOME/sysman/config
B. $AGEMT_HOME/flysman/log
C. $ACEMT_HOME/cfgtoollogs
D. $IMVEHTORY_LOC/logs
Answer: A,C

Oracle   1Z0-530   1Z0-530   1Z0-530   certification 1Z0-530

NO.5 The Connector Framework resides on________.
A. Oracle Management Service (OMS)
B. Oracle Fusion Middleware
C. Grid Control console
D. Memory Access Module
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-530   certification 1Z0-530

NO.6 Enterprise Manager beacons are a feature of which 11g management pack.?
A. Provisioning and Patch Automation
B. Database Diagnostics
C. Configuration Management
D. Real User Experience Insight
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-530   1Z0-530 examen   1Z0-530

NO.7 Which could be used to identify the top pages in a Web application?
A. Service Level Management Pack
B. Real User Experience Insight
C. Configuration Management Pack
D. WebLogic Management Pack
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-530   1Z0-530   1Z0-530 examen   1Z0-530

NO.8 You want to save and reuse Information Publisher jobs in the future. You should use______.
A. Job Library
B. Job Activity
C. Multitask Job
D. Groups
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-530   certification 1Z0-530   1Z0-530   1Z0-530

NO.9 How does Oracle Business Transaction Management map dependencies between services?
A. Statically, but looking in design-time repositories
B. Via integration with modeling tools
C. By evaluating live application invocations
D. By inspecting the source code
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which Pack includes JVM Diagnostics (formerly AD4J)?
A. Diagnostics Pack for Oracle Middleware
B. Database Diagnostics Pack
C. Configuration Management Pack
D. Provisioning and Patch Automation Pack
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-852

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Standard Edition 6 Programmer Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)

Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 System.out.print(b.FOO);

NO.2 }

NO.3 } }

NO.4 }

NO.5 System.out.print(s.FOO);

NO.6 class C extends B { void c1() { } }
and:
A x = new B(); C y = new C(); A z = new C();
What are four valid examples of polymorphic method calls? (Choose four.)
A. x.a2();
B. z.a2();
C. z.c1();
D. z.a1();
E. y.c1();
F. x.a1();
Answer: A,B,D,F

Oracle   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen   certification 1Z0-852
5.A company that makes Computer Assisted Design (CAD) software has, within its application, some
utility classes that are used to perform 3D rendering tasks. The company's chief scientist has just
improved the performance of one of the utility classes' key rendering algorithms, and has assigned a
programmer to replace the old algorithm with the new algorithm. When the programmer begins
researching the utility classes, she is happy to discover that the algorithm to be replaced exists in only one
class. The programmer reviews that class's API, and replaces the old algorithm with the new algorithm,
being careful that her changes adhere strictly to the class's API. Once testing has begun, the programmer
discovers that other classes that use the class she
changed are no longer working properly. What design flaw is most likely the cause of these new bugs?
A. Inheritance
B. Tight coupling
C. Low cohesion
D. High cohesion
E. Loose coupling
F. Object immutability
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
6.Given:
11. class Mammal { }
12.
13. class Raccoon extends Mammal {
14. Mammal m = new Mammal();
15. }
16.
17. class BabyRaccoon extends Mammal { }
Which four statements are true? (Choose four.)
A. Raccoon is-a Mammal.
B. Raccoon has-a Mammal.
C. BabyRaccoon is-a Mammal.
D. BabyRaccoon is-a Raccoon.
E. BabyRaccoon has-a Mammal.
F. BabyRaccoon is-a BabyRaccoon.
Answer: A,B,C,F

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
7.Given:
2. public class Hi {
3. void m1() { }
4. protected void() m2 { }
5. } 6. class Lois extends Hi {
7. // insert code here
8. }
Which four code fragments, inserted independently at line 7, will compile? (Choose four.)
A. public void m1() { }
B. protected void m1() { }
C. private void m1() { }
D. void m2() { }
E. public void m2() { }
F. protected void m2() { }
G. private void m2() { }
Answer: A,B,E,F

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
8.Given that:
Gadget has-a Sprocket and
Gadget has-a Spring and
Gadget is-a Widget and
Widget has-a Sprocket
Which two code fragments represent these relationships? (Choose two.)
A. class Widget { Sprocket s; }
class Gadget extends Widget { Spring s; }
B. class Widget { }
class Gadget extends Widget { Spring s1; Sprocket s2; }
C. class Widget { Sprocket s1; Spring s2; }
class Gadget extends Widget { }
D. class Gadget { Spring s; }
class Widget extends Gadget{ Sprocket s; }
E. class Gadget { }
class Widget extends Gadget{ Sprocket s1; Spring s2; }
F. class Gadget { Spring s1; Sprocket s2; }
class Widget extends Gadget{ }
Answer: A,C

certification Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen   1Z0-852 examen   1Z0-852 examen
9.Given the following six method names:
addListener
addMouseListener
setMouseListener
deleteMouseListener
removeMouseListener
registerMouseListener
How many of these method names follow JavaBean Listener naming rules?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
10.Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Compilation fails.
B. The code compiles and the output is 2.
C. If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, compilation would fail.
D. If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, compilation would fail.
E. If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be2.
F. If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be 1.
Answer: B,E,F

Oracle   1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852
11.Given:
1. class Alligator {
2. public static void main(String[] args) {
3. int []x[] = {{1,2}, {3,4,5}, {6,7,8,9}};
4. int [][]y = x;
5. System.out.println(y[2][1]);
6. }
7. }
What is the result?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 7
F. Compilation fails.
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
12.Given:
11. public static void main(String[] args) {
12. Object obj = new int[] { 1, 2, 3 };
13. int[] someArray = (int[])obj;
14. for (int i : someArray) System.out.print(i + " ");
15. }
What is the result?
A. 1 2 3
B. Compilation fails because of an error in line 12.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 13.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 14.
E. A ClassCastException is thrown at runtime.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen   1Z0-852 examen
13.Given:
11. public interface A { public void m1(); }
12.
13. class B implements A { }
14. class C implements A { public void m1() { } }
15. class D implements A { public void m1(int x) { } }
16. abstract class E implements A { }
17. abstract class F implements A { public void m1() { } }
18. abstract class G implements A { public void m1(int x) { } }
What is the result?
A. Compilation succeeds.
B. Exactly one class does NOT compile.
C. Exactly two classes do NOT compile.
D. Exactly four classes do NOT compile.
E. Exactly three classes do NOT compile.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-852   1Z0-852
14.Given:
21. abstract class C1 {
22. public C1() { System.out.print(1); }
23. }
24. class C2 extends C1 {
25. public C2() { System.out.print(2); }
26. }
27. class C3 extends C2 {
28. public C3() { System.out.println(3); }
29. }
30. public class Ctest {
31. public static void main(String[] a) { new C3(); }
32. }
What is the result?
A. 3
B. 23
C. 32
D. 123
E. 321
F. Compilation fails.
G. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
15.Given:
1. public class A {
2. public void doit() {
3. }
4. public String doit() {
5. return "a";
6. }
7. public double doit(int x) {
8. return 1.0;
9. }
10. }
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. Compilation fails because of an error in line 7.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 4.
D. Compilation succeeds and no runtime errors with class A occur.
Answer: C

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-852   certification 1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen

NO.7 Sub s = new Sub();

NO.8 public static void main(String[] args) {

NO.9 Given:
1. public class Base {

NO.10 class Sub extends Base {public static final String FOO="bar";}
What is the result?
A. foofoofoofoofoo
B. foobarfoobarbar
C. foobarfoofoofoo
D. foobarfoobarfoo
E. barbarbarbarbar
F. foofoofoobarbar
G. foofoofoobarfoo
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852   1Z0-852
2.A company has a business application that provides its users with many different reports: receivables
reports, payables reports, revenue projects, and so on. The company has just
purchased some new, state-of-the-art, wireless printers, and a programmer has been assigned the task of
enhancing all of the reports to use not only the company's old printers, but the new wireless printers as
well. When the programmer starts looking into the application, the programmer discovers that because of
the design of the application, it is necessary to make changes to eachreport to support the new printers.
Which two design concepts most likely explain this situation.? (Choose two.)
A. Inheritance
B. Low cohesion
C. Tight coupling
D. High cohesion
E. Loose coupling
F. Object immutability
Answer: B,C

Oracle   1Z0-852 examen   certification 1Z0-852
3.Given:
5. class Building { }
6. public class Barn extends Building {
7. public static void main(String[] args) {
8. Building build1 = new Building();
9. Barn barn1 = new Barn();
10. Barn barn2 = (Barn) build1;
11. Object obj1 = (Object) build1;
12. String str1 = (String) build1;

NO.11 public static final String FOO = "foo";

NO.12 System.out.print(Sub.FOO);

NO.13 Building build2 = (Building) barn1;

NO.14 Base b = new Base();

NO.15 }
Which is true?
A. If line 10 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
B. If line 11 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
C. If line 12 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
D. If line 13 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
E. More than one line must be removed for compilation to succeed.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-852   1Z0-852 examen
4.Given:
10. abstract class A {
11. abstract void a1();
12. void a2() { }
13. }
14. class B extends A {
15. void a1() { }

NO.16 System.out.print(Base.FOO);

NO.17 System.out.print(((Base)s).FOO);

NO.18 void a2() { }

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-869

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Mobile Edition 1 Mobile Application Developer Certified Professional Exam)

Questions et réponses: 340 Q&As

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NO.1 A Player plays a sound after start() is called. Which is the most efficient way to pause the playback so
that it may be started as soon as possible when required?
A. call setRate(0) on the player
B. call stop() on the player
C. call close() on the player
D. call System.gc() to collect those resources marked for garbage collection
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two are true about record stores? (Choose two.)
A. If two MIDlet suites each have a record store with the same name, then those suites CANNOT share
those identically named record stores.
B. A MIDlet CANNOT access a given record store using multiple simultaneous threads.
C. Record store names are case sensitive.
D. The API does NOT provide locking operations for record stores.
E. MIDlet suites that contain shared record stores are identified by using attributes from that suite's JAR
file.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Given the push connection string:
MIDlet-Push-1: socket://:79, com.sun.example.SampleChat, 192.3?.?.*
Which two addresses are allowed to push connection notifications to the application? (Choose two.)
A. 192.31.101.1
B. 192.32.1.101
C. 192.310.101.1
D. 192.3.1.101
E. 192.31.1.1
F. 192.310.10.1
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 What is the minimum number of received SMS messages that a JTWI device must be able to
concatenate?
A. 5
B. 32
C. 10
D. 3
E. no minimum
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two are true for List? (Choose two.)
A. You can add Command objects to a List without registering a CommandListener.
B. Images and text in a List CANNOT be changed once the List is created.
C. Traversing and scrolling in a List causes events that can be programmatically detected.
D. A CommandListener must be registered for the application to recognize user selections in a List.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Given:
21. TextField tf = new TextField("Memo", "", 50, TextField.ANY);
22. DateField df = new DateField("Date", DateField.DATE_TIME);
23. Form fm = new Form("Form demo");
24. Command cmCount = new Command("Word count", Command.ITEM, 1);
25. Command cmExit = new Command("Exit", Command.EXIT, 1);
26.
27. tf.addCommand(cmCount);
28. fm.append(df);
29. fm.append(tf);
30. fm.addCommand(cmExit);
31. fm.setCommandListener(this);
Which is true?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. The cmCount and cmExit commands is always available on fm, regardless of which Item is active.
C. Compilation fails.
D. The cmCount command is available only when tf is the active Item.
E. The cmExit command is available only when df is the active Item.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two are true about errors and exceptions in a CLDC-compliant virtual machine? (Choose two.)
A. A CLDC-compliant virtual machine must NOT throw a VirtualMachineError.
B. Developers are NOT allowed to handle errors.
C. Developers do NOT receive asynchronous exceptions from a CLDC-compliant virtual machine.
D. Developers must throw only checked (non-runtime) exceptions.
E. Rather than throwing the Error class specified by the Java Language Specification, the
CLDC-compliant virtual machine may throw a CLDC-supported superclass.
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 obscure is a content type unsupported on a device that executes:
10. String locator = "http://foobar.sun.com/content.obscure";
11. Player player = Manager.createPlayer(locator);
Which is true?
A. The file is interpreted as an HTML file.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. The file is interpreted as an ASCII file.
D. player is set to null.
Answer: B

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NO.9 How would a MIDlet that uses a GameCanvas efficiently update only a small region of the screen, from
the data in the off-screen buffer?
A. call flushGraphics(int, int, int, int) that specifies the region to be flushed
B. call serviceRepaints() and set a clip region on the Graphics object in paint()
C. Pixels that are NOT to be flushed should be made transparent.
D. write extra code to coalesce the flushGraphics() calls over many loops into one call
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the GameCanvas code:
10. public void run() {
11. try {
12. Graphics g = getGraphics();
13. Image dog = Image.createImage("/dog.png");
14. Sprite s = new Sprite(dog, 98, 88);
15. s.setPosition(0,0);
16. while (gameActive) {
17. s.setFrame(0);
18. s.paint(g);
19. flushGraphics();
20. s.setFrame(1);
21. s.paint(g);
22. flushGraphics();
23. }
24. } catch (Exception ex) {
25. //...
31. }
32. }
Assuming that gameActive is true, and that run() is called as a result of a new thread's start() invocation,
what is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime because of an error with the arguments to the Sprite
constructor.
B. An IndexOutOfBoundsException occurs due to an error in line 17 or line 20.
C. The dog on the left side of the image file appears on the display, but the dog on the right side is never
seen.
D. Compilation fails because Sprite does NOT have a paint(Graphics g) method.
E. An animation appears that continuously cycles between the two versions of the dog.
Answer: E

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NO.11 Which two are true regarding error handling for classes that exist in both CLDC and J2SE? (Choose
two.)
A. The set of error classes is essentially the same in CLDC and J2SE.
B. The set of error classes is much reduced in CLDC to help reduce the overhead of the JVM.
C. If a class throws an error in CLDC, it should throw the same error as in J2SE or its nearest superclass.
D. There is no correspondence between the errors defined by CLDC and J2SE because the needs of
CLDC and J2SE are so different.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Which method is initially called when the MIDlet starts in response to a push notification?
A. PushRegistry.listConnections()
B. PushRegistry.notifyIncomingConnection()
C. MIDlet.startApp()
D. MIDlet.notifyApp()
E. MIDlet.pushApp()
F. MIDlet.resumeRequest()
Answer: C

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NO.13 Given:
10. //...
20. int[] foo = new int[10000];
21. foo = null;
22. System.gc();
23. //...
Which is true once the program execution reaches line 23?
A. The garbage collector suspends the program until more memory becomes available.
B. The garbage collector CANNOT reclaim the memory allocated to foo because the reference is
nulled out.
C. The garbage collector is triggered and memory is guaranteed to be reclaimed.
D. The garbage collector is triggered but there are no guarantees that any memory has been reclaimed.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the result?
A. myForm contains the string "run count: 2".
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. myForm contains the string "run count: 0".
D. myForm contains the string "run count: 1".
E. myForm contains the string "waiting...".
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which three are true.? (Choose three.)
A. A MIDlet suite consists of only one JAR file.
B. Different MIDlet suites can share data with each other.
C. A MIDlet suite can have more than one class that extends the MIDlet class.
D. A MIDlet suite is an array of MIDlet objects.
E. The names of MIDlet classes that belong to different MIDlet suites must be different.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two are true assuming this method is in a MIDlet? (Choose two.)
A. The Chocolate Prefs choice is never displayed to the user.
B. Compilation fails due to a problem with code related to event handling.
C. The text "You made a choice" is displayed immediately after the user makes a selection.
D. The user can select more than one type of chocolate.
E. An exception occurs at runtime due to a problem related to the event handling code.
F. Anonymous inner classes must NOT be used as event handlers within a MIDlet.
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Given:
10. MessageConnection conn;
11.
12. public void startApp() {
13. try {
14. conn = (MessageConnection) Connector.open("cbs://:3382");
15. //...
17. } catch (Exception e) {
18. //...
20. }
21. }
22.
30. public void run() {
31. Message msg = conn.receive();
32. //...
40. conn.send(msg);
41. }
What is the result?
A. An error at line 40 causes an exception at runtime.
B. An error at line 14 causes compile to fail.
C. An error at line 31 causes an exception at runtime.
D. The code successfully sends a message.
E. An error at line 14 causes an exception at runtime.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which JAD attribute must be present to begin the MIDlet suite authentication process using X.509
PKI?
A. MIDlet-Permission
B. MIDlet-Jar-RSA-SHA1
C. MIDlet-Certificate-n-m
D. MIDlet-Permission-Opt
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two methods are available in both the low-level and high-level APIs? (Choose two.)
A. getLayout()
B. getTitle()
C. isShown()
D. setFullScreenMode()
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 Which is true for Item?
A. The same Command may occur on more than one Item.
B. The same Item may be appended to more than one Form at the same time.
C. When adding a Command to an Item, specifying a command type other than Command.ITEM results
in a compilation failure.
D. Minimum and preferred size CANNOT be changed once an Item is created.
Answer: A

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NO.21 A MIDlet suite is signed using X.509 PKI. Which encoding format must be used for the certificate
entries in the JAD file?
A. yEnc
B. binary
C. none
D. base64
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which two are true about class file verification as defined by the CLDC specification? (Choose two.)
A. Verification is NOT required.
B. Verification can use a custom implementation.
C. Verification is completed at compile time and no further verification is necessary.
D. Verification can use the same implementation as defined in the JVM specification.
Answer: B,D

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NO.23 Which three statements are true regarding the handling of wireless connections? (Choose three.)
A. Devices can only support one HttpConnection at a time; therefore, network access from
multiple threads must be serialized.
B. The connection could unexpectedly terminate while processing the input or output streams.
C. Performing network operations on the same thread used by the display is likely to block
refreshes of the display until the network operations complete.
D. A network connection could interfere with other services on the device, such as the ability to receive
phone calls or SMS on a phone.
E. Network connections should never be performed on a separate thread, so problems can be handled
quickly.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.24 A MIDlet has entered the paused state. Which is a valid action to attempt to make it active?
A. The MIDlet cannot revert back to the active state.
B. The MIDlet calls resumeRequest() through a timer.
C. The MIDlet calls its own startApp() method.
D. The MIDlet has to wait quietly to be rescheduled.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
NewsMIDlet and CalendarMIDlet are in different MIDlet suites. Neither has any static push registrations.
Suppose NewsMIDlet registers dynamically for datagram push notifications on port 79.
What happens if a method CalendarMIDlet.init() attempts to open a UDPDatagramConnection on port
79?
A. init() succeeds without user confirmation, and removes NewsMIDlet's registration for datagram push
connections.
B. init() fails to open the connection.
C. init() succeeds only with user confirmation.
D. init() succeeds without user confirmation, and leaves untouched NewsMIDlet's registration for
datagram push connections.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Given:
15. String addr = "sms://+14155557296";
16. MessageConnection conn
17. = (MessageConnection) Connector.open(addr);
18. // insert code here
19. message.setPayloadData(imageBytes);
Assume imageBytes is a valid byte array.
Which statement, inserted at line 18, causes the rest of the code fragment to compile correctly?
A. Message message = new BinaryMessage();
B. BinaryMessage message = (BinaryMessage)
conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
C. Message message = conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
D. BinaryMessage message = new BinaryMessage();
Answer: B

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NO.27 Given:
10. //...
20. try {
21. Hashtable table = new Hashtable();
22. for (;;) table.put(new Object(), new Object());
23. } catch (OutOfMemoryException e) {
24. Display.getDisplay().setCurrent(new Alert("Out of Memory!"));
25. }
26. //...
Which is true?
A. Out of Memory! is printed to the system console.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime but there is no guarantee an alert will be shown to the user.
C. Compilation fails.
D. The program hangs at line 22.
Answer: B

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NO.28 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place the appropriate platform label on the class name. If the class exists in both CLDC and J2SE,
choose the "Exists in BOTH..." option, regardless of whether the package names are different.
Answer:

NO.29 A suite is signed with a X.509 PKI certificate. The root certificate is not present in the device's keystore.
What is the installation result?
A. The JAD file is rejected. Installation fails.
B. The JAD file is rejected. It installs in the untrusted domain.
C. Authentication fails. It installs in the untrusted domain.
D. Authentication fails. Installation fails.
Answer: D

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NO.30 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place each player state next to its description.
Answer:

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NO.1 public void setValue (int i) {value = i; }

NO.2 }
A. @Stateful
public class BarEJB implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
B. @Stateful (name = Bar )
public class Barbean implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
C. @Stateful
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () {}
D. @Stateful (name = bar )
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}
Answer: C

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7.A developer creates a stateful session bean that is used by many concurrent clients. The clients are
written by other development team; and it is assumed that these clients might not remove the bean when
ending their session. The number of concurrent sessions will be greater than the defined bean cache
size.
The developer must consider that the state of the session bean can be influenced by either passivation or
timeout.
Which three actions should the developer take to make the bean behave correctly in passivation and
timeout situations? (Choose three.)
A. Release references to resources in a @Remove annotated method.
B. Re-establish references to resources in an omit annotated method.
C. Release references to resources in a @preDestroy annotated method.
D. Release references to resources in a SPrePassivate annotated method.
E. Re-establish references to resources in a @PostActivate annotated method.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 A developer examines a list of potential enterprise applications and selects the most appropriate
technologies to use for each application.
For which two applications is EJB an appropriate solution.? (Choose two.)
A. To render a GUI for mobile clients.
B. As a container for web-tier components including JSP.
C. As a Web service endpoint accessed by non-Java clients.
D. To receive and respond to HTTP Post requests directly from a web browser.
E. As an online shopping cart which can persist across multiple sessions with a single client.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 A developer writes a stateful session bean FooBean with one remote business interface Foo. Foo
defines an integer / setter method pair implemented as:

NO.5 A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance variables A and
B are serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many business calls, and
can, therefore, not be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper instance variable C is defined
as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is in variable B. for example, B is of
type XML-DOM tree and C of Type String.
Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state of the session bean over a passivation and
activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of Instance variable B in the beans no-arg
constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postcreate
annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postActivate
annotated method.
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable type
and assigned to another instance variable in a @preDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable
type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated method.
Answer: C,E

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NO.6 public int getValue () {return value; }
A session bean ClientBean has a business method doSomething and an ejb-ref with ejb-ref-name
fooRef
that is mapped to FooBean s Foo interface.
11. @Resource private SessionContext SessionCtx;
12. public void doSomething () {

NO.7 A developer needs to deliver a large-scale enterprise application that connects developer chooses an
EJB 3.1-compliant application server, which three are true about the EJB business component tier?
(Choose three.)
A. Load-balancing is NOT a guarantee for all EJB 3.1 containers.
B. Clustering is guaranteed to be supported by the EJB 3.1 container.
C. Thread pooling can be optimized by the Bean Provider programmatically.
D. Bean Providers are NOT required to write code for transaction demarcation.
E. Support for server fail-over is guaranteed for an EJB 3.1-compliant application server.
F. EJB 3.1 compliant components are guaranteed to work within any Java EE 6 application server
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.8 private int value;

NO.9 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Typically, remotely accessible objects should be coarse-grained.
B. If a client accesses an enterprise bean locally such access must be mediated by the EJB container.
C. A given enterprise bean's transaction information is immutable because it is deployed across various
containers.
D. If a container provides services NOT required by the EJB specification, then that container is NOT
considered to be an EJB container.
E. An enterprise bean's transaction Information can be accessed by external tools only if the information
is contained in an XML deployment descriptor.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 A developer wants to write a stateful session bean using the following interface as local business
interface:
1. package acme;
2. public interface Bar {
3. public void bar ();
4. }
Assuming there is not an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define the
bean with the ejb name of BarBean?
1. package acme;
2. import javax.ejb.*;
3. import java.io.*;
4.
5.
6.

NO.11 Foo foo2 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup("fooRef");

NO.12 foo1.setvalue(1);
Which statement is true after the code at line 15 completes?
A. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
B. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
C. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
D. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
Answer: D

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10.A developer writes a stateless session bean FooBean with one remote business interface FooRemote
containing one business method foo. Method foo takes a single parameter of application-defined type
MyData.
11. public class MyData implements java.io.Serialization {
12. int a;
13. }
Methods foo is implemented with the FooBean class as:
11. public void foo (MyData data) {
12. data.a = 2;
13. }
Another session bean within the same application has a reference to FooRemote in variable fooRef and
calls method foo with the following code:
11. MyData data = new MyData();
12. data.a = 1;
13. Fooref.foo(data);
14. System.out.printIn(data.a);
What is the value of data.a when control reaches Line 14 of the client?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
Answer: B

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NO.13 Foo foo1 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup("fooRef");

NO.14 Assume you would like to receive notification from the container as a stateless session bean transitions
to and from the ready state.
Which of the following life cycle back annotations would you use? (Choose one.)
A. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy
B. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy
C. @PreConstruct, @PostDestroy
D. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy, @Remove
E. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy, @Remove
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which API must an EJB 3.1 container make available to enterprise beans at runtime? (Choose one)
A. The JXTA 1.1 API
B. The MIDP 2.0 API
C. The Java SE 6 JNDI API
D. The Java SE 5 JDBC API
Answer: C,D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-457

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Enterprise Manager 12c Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three are key elements in the plugin.xml file for Oracle Enterprise Management?
A. CredentialInfo
B. CredentialType
C. CredentialSet
D. CredentialSetRow
E. CredentialMember
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 When you create reports using Information Publisher, which three statements are true?
A. You always start from the beginning when you create custom reports.
B. Both default categories and subcategories can be used for out of the-box reports.
C. Time-period and/or target parameters can be used for viewing reports.
D. Using reporting elements, you can add a variety of information to your report.
E. No additional customization is provided after the reporting elements are assembled.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Identify two true statements about the setup and use of identity management within Oracle
Enterprise manager.
A. Credentials are used to access targets that are monitored and managed by Oracle Enterprise
Manager.
B. Repository-Base Authentication is the default authentication.
C. Single Sign-On Authentication is the default authentication.
D. Credentials are used as the root of the data masking key.
E. Using the SCOTT/TIGER identify, you can demonstrate but not configure Oracle Enterprise
Manager.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which feature provides real-time change detection?
A. Grid Control
B. Configuration Change Console
C. Application Configuration Console
D. Database Control
Answer: B

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NO.5 Oracle Enterprise Manager Groups enable users to _________.
A. Send email notifications based on Repeat Frequency
B. Specify monitoring and policy settings once and apply them as often as needed
C. Group only homogeneous targets
D. View the summary status of the targets within the group
Answer: B

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NO.6 In Oracle Enterprise Manager, what would you use for a job that you want to save and use
again
later?
A. The job Repository
B. The Job Scheduler
C. The Job Library
D. The Job Activity Service
E. The Job Reuse Template
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-457   1Z0-457

NO.7 Which three configuration management functions are included in the Oracle Enterprise
manager
WebLogic Management Pack Enterprise Edition?
A. Comparing user files that are not associated with the Oracle Middleware home
B. Tracking configuration drift
C. Detecting policy violations
D. Tracking memory drift
E. Generating WebLogic regulatory compliance exceptions
F. Comparing configurations across WebLogic Server domains
Answer: B,E,F

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Code d'Examen: UM0-411

Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg OCRES - Advanced Exam)

Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 For which schedule is the task priority computed using both the tasks execution time and its deadline?
A. Least Laxity First
B. Shortest Job First
C. Deadline Monotonic
D. Shortest Remaining Time
Answer:A

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NO.2 What is the difference between static and dynamic variables?
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables.
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components.
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change
value as determined by the program.
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and
destroyed by the program and scoping rules.
Answer: D

OMG   certification UM0-411   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.3 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform
specific model.
D. It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to
incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
Answer:AC

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NO.5 A 'strongly typed' programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD

OMG examen   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.6 Earliest deadline scheduling is a form of what?
A. preemptive static scheduling
B. deadline monotonic scheduling
C. non-preemptive static scheduling
D. priority-based preemptive dynamic scheduling
Answer: D

OMG   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.7 Which is an example of a performance modeling tool?
A. spreadsheet
B. discrete event simulator
C. transaction rate analyzer
D. software configuration manager
Answer: B

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.8 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual
C. Patterns
D. Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E

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NO.9 How does a pure tree decomposition differ from a general hierarchical decomposition?
A. Different modules share standard subroutines.
B. Leaf-functions are shared between many different modules.
C. 'Building-brick' functions are NOT shared between modules.
D. System branch prediction can be used to increase performance.
Answer: C

OMG   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411

NO.10 Which statement is true about the feasibility of a Rate Monotonic Schedule?
A. It CANNOT be determined precisely.
B. It can be determined only for the highest priority task.
C. It can be determined for any set of task deadlines with bounded execution times.
D. It can be determined for any number of periodic tasks with bounded execution times.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.12 What does performance engineering start with?
A. creating a predictable system architecture
B. choosing an appropriately predictable scheduling policy
C. defining the performance requirements for the target system
D. defining a set of performance tests to determine that requirements will be met
Answer: C

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NO.13 A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what?
A. task laxity
B. task deadline
C. system mode
D. length of a task's period
Answer: D

OMG   certification UM0-411   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.14 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose
two.)
A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
Answer:AC

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.15 Creating rate groups can produce which effect?
A. reducing processor load variations
B. ensuring that time constraints are met
C. decreasing the overhead of task dispatch
D. simplifying system maintainability when requirements change
Answer: C

OMG examen   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.16 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?
A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B

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NO.17 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is one difference between service level software and application level software?
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level
software does not.
B. Application level software always forms the core "building bricks" of software systems while service
level software is always portable across different hardware.
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service
level software provides application-independent functionality.
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while
application level software provide a consistent programming interface.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC

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NO.20 Programs devised using functional structuring are based on what?
A. abstract machines organized in layers
B. data processed by individual statements
C. functions operating on shared structures
D. independent functions organized in parallel
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: 50-664

Nom d'Examen: Novell (Novell edirectory design and implementation)

Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 You have just finished executing a tree merge. Which tasks are left to complete the tree merge
process? (Choose 2.)
A.Correct bindery services commands.
B.Update workstation configurations.
C.Delete and re-create volume objects.
D.Restore the taped backup of the file system.
E.Verify trustee assignments to the file system.
Correct:A B

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NO.2 Your company has 15 sites connected by a WAN link to corporate headquarters. Corporate
headquarters has 50 servers and each of the 15 sites has 30 servers. You are implementing a
multiple time provider group time synchronization strategy. Which are considerations you should
make before implementing this strategy? (Choose 2.)
A.If possible, create local time providers.
B.There will be a single point of failure at each location.
C.You cannot exceed 7 primary time servers in your network.
D.Make sure each reference server will synchronize with the same external source.
E.The single reference time synchronization strategy will provide a better strategy for this network
structure.
Correct:A D

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.3 What does the following WAN Traffic Manager policy control? TCPIP, NA
A.Prevents background traffic generated by TCP/IP
B.Prevents background traffic unless the traffic is generated by TCP/IP
C.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic is in the same TCP/IP network area
D.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic comes from a different TCP/IP network area
Correct:B

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.4 A secondary server is not synchronized with a single reference time server. During the next
polling process, what percent of the time difference does the secondary time server adjust?
A.0%
B.16%
C.25%
D.50%
E.75%
F.100%
Correct:F

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.5 You are getting ready to merge 2 eDirectory trees. What should be done before attempting to
merge trees? (Choose 2.)
A.Back up both eDirectory trees.
B.Rename the Admin user object in the target tree.
C.Remove the source server from all replica rings.
D.Use DSREPAIR to update the schema so it is the same on both servers.
E.Rename the first level container objects in both trees to be identical.
Correct:A D

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.6 What does WAN Traffic Manager control? (Choose 2.)
A.Events initiated by administrators or users
B.Server-to-server traffic generated by eDirectory
C.Server-to-server traffic generated by time synchronization
D.The amount of eDirectory traffic based on cost of traffic and time of day
E.Which servers the master replica server synchronizes to by using configured lists
Correct:B D

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.7 Which DNS/DHCP object contains resource record sets for DNS root servers?
A.DNS Zone object
B.DNS Group object
C.DNS Locator object
D.DNS Name Server object
E.RootSrvrInfo Zone object
Correct:E

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.8 You have completed a tree merge and want to confirm the new tree name by ensuring that all
servers in the tree are configured to support the new tree. Which utility will provide you the status
of every server in the tree and the name of the tree it is servicing?
A.DSMAINT
B.DSMERGE
C.DSREPAIR
D.ConsoleOne
E.NDS Manager
Correct:B

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.9 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. Shown in the exhibit is a partition and
replica table, and a partitioned eDirectory tree. Which servers automatically receive a subordinate
reference of the PR partition?
A.Serv2, Serv5, and Serv6
B.Serv2, Serv4, and Serv6
C.Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
D.Serv2, Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
E.Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6
Correct:C

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.10 In which eDirectory objects do WAN traffic policies reside? (Choose 2.)
A.The Admin object
B.The Server object
C.The LAN Area object
D.Any container object
E.The partition root object
Correct:B C

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.11 Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A.Master
B.Master and filtered
C.Master and read/only
D.Master and read/write
E.Master,read/write, and read-only
F.Master, read/write, and filtered
G.Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Correct:E

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.12 You are implementing an NDPS printing environment. Where is it recommended to place the
NDPS print manager object in the eDirectory tree?
A.Next to user objects
B.Next to the NDPS printer object
C.In the same container where the server object resides
D.At least one level higher than the printers it manages
E.In the same container as the user object that has administrative rights to manage it
Correct:D

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.13 Which statement is true of queue-based printing?
A.The print server object must be associated with a volume object.
B.The printer object must be associated with a print server object.
C.The print queue object must be associated with a print server object.
D.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container.
E.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container as the
corresponding server object.
Correct:B

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.14 In which file do you configure time on a Linux server?
A.ntp.conf
B.init.conf
C.time.conf
D.tsync.conf
E.clock.conf
Correct:A

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.15 Perform the following drag-and-drop task. Begin by clicking the Drag-and-Drop button. When
you finish, continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. Listed are administrator
roles and their characteristics. Drag the administrator role to its characteristic.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.16 What does DSMERGE allow you to do?
A.Create replicas
B.Create partitions
C.Rename the eDirectory tree
D.Configure time synchronization
E.Rename objects within the eDirectory tree
Correct:C

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.17 What is a good recommendation to follow when designing partitions for lower layers in the tree?
A.Create a partition for each container.
B.Partition the Directory by function regardless of location.
C.Use organizational divisions and workgroups to define lower-level partitions.
D.Place all servers, including servers at different locations, in the same partition.
E.Partition the Directory with more partitions at the top and fewer partitions at lower-levels.
Correct:C

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.18 After you create object naming standards, what should be defined for the attribute standards?
(Choose 2.)
A.Which object types require attributes
B.Whether the attribute of an object is required
C.Whether the attribute of an object is purgeable
D.Whether the attribute of an object is unique from other object attributes
E.Whether the attribute of an object is a system attribute that is automatically populated by eDirectory
Correct:B E

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.19 You are the network administrator for your company and are in charge of your company's
eDirectory design and implementation project. You have completed the project approach phase of
the eDirectory design cycle. Which tasks still need to be completed before you begin the
implementation phase? (Choose 2.)
A.Design the eDirectory tree
B.Fine-tune the eDirectory design
C.Determine accessibility needs
D.Plan a time synchronization strategy
E.Gather business information related to network design
Correct:A C

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

NO.20 You have just created an eDirectory tree and installed 3 servers into the tree. The tree has one
partition. Server1, Server2, and Server3 were installed into the Corp container. Server2 crashed
and you removed it from the tree before you installed additional servers. The additional servers
installed in the tree were Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7. Server4 and Server5 were
installed into the Prod container. Server6 and Server7 were installed into the Acct container. The
Corp, Prod, and Acct containers are children of the tree root. The servers were placed in the tree
in the following order: Server4, Server5, Server6, Server7. You haven't had the chance to manually
add replicas to any server. Which servers hold replicas?
A.Server1 and Server3
B.Server1, Server3, and Server4
C.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server6
D.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server5
E.Server1, Server3, Server6, and Server7
F.Server1, Server3, Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7
Correct:B

Novell examen   50-664   certification 50-664   50-664   50-664 examen

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